7, 8, 9 &10
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- Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton?
- rib
- A small, flattened articular surface is a
- facet
- The general term for a depression in a bone is
- fossa
- What small ridges extend laterally from the external occipital protuberance and serve as points of attachment for several neck muscles?
- nuchal lines
- The largest foramen in the skull is the
- foramen magnum.
- The mastoid process and mastoid air cells are part of the
- temporal bone.
- Which bones articulate with the sphenoid bone?
- frontal bone;ethmoid bone; parietal bone and occipital bone
- Which part of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?
- condylar process
- The zygomatic arch consists of processes from the
- temporal and zygomatic bones.
- Which of these bones form part of the orbit?
- frontal ; ethmoid;maxilla and sphenoid
- Three bony shelves that project inferiorly in the nasal cavity are called
- nasal conchae.
- The olfactory foramina are found in the
- cribriform plate.
- During life, the pituitary gland is located in the
- sella turcica.
- Sound waves enroute to the eardrum travel through the
- external auditory meatus.
- Which of these bones is part of the cranial vault?
- frontal occipital parietal temporal
- Which bones articulate with any other bone?
- maxilla mandible vertebra inferior nasal concha
- Which vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes and possess articular facets on their lateral surfaces to articulate with ribs?
- thoracic
- Which statements concerning vertebral column curvatures?
- The lumbar curve develops after birth.
- Pregnancy is most likely to contribute to which conditions?
- lordosis
- The openings between vertebrae through which spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord are
- intervertebral foramina.
- The vertebral arch
- consists of two laminae and two pedicles.
- The internal gelatinous portion of the intervertebral disk is called the
- nucleus pulposus.
- The region of the vertebral column that is most susceptible to herniated disks is the
- lumbar region.
- Normally, there are seven
- cervical vertebrae.
- On the sacrum, the landmark that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity is the
- sacral promontory.
- Of the 12 pairs of ribs, ____________ pair(s) is/are vertebrochondral.
- 3
- The articular facet for the transverse process of a vertebra is found on the __________ of a rib.
- tubercle
- The clavicle articulates with what two bones?
- scapula and sternum
- Greater and lesser tubercles are found on the __________ , whereas the greater and lesser trochanters are found on the ___________ .
- humerus, femur
- The head of the radius is __________ ; the head of the ulna is __________ .
- proximal, distal
- The wrist consists of eight __________ bones, whereas the ankle consists of seven __________ bones.
- carpal, tarsal
- Two bones that have prominent epicondyles are the
- femur and humerus.
- The radial notch is found on the
- ulna
- The depression on the os coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the
- acetabulum.
- The bumps that a person sits on are their
- ischial tuberosities.
- The medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with the __________ of the tibia.
- medial and lateral condyles
- This structure on the fibula forms part of what we commonly call our "ankle bone."
- lateral malleolus
- The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.
- 206, decreases
- Which bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?
- facet
- Which bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?
- condyle
- Which bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?
- trochanter
- What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?
- points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
- Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?
- fossa
- Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?
- fovea
- Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?
- meatus
- Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?
- foramen
- Which is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?
- sinus
- Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?
- skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
- Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?
- parietal
- Which bones are joined by squamosal suture?
- temporal and parietal
- Which bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?
- occipital and parietal
- Which bones are joined by the coronal suture?
- frontal and parietal
- Which bones are joined by the saggital suture?
- right and left parietal
- Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?
- hyoid
- Which bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?
- frontal
- The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?
- frontal
- The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?
- ethmoid
- The sella turcica is part of which bone?
- sphenoid
- The mastoid process is part of which bone?
- temporal
- What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?
- pituitary gland
- The crista galli is part of which bone?
- ethmoid
- The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?
- temporal
- The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?
- ethmoid
- Which bones has greater and lesser wings?
- sphenoid
- Which bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?
- occipital
- Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?
- sphenoid
- The jugular foramen lies between two bones.
- temporal and occipital
- The foramen lacerum lies between two bones.
- sphenoid and temporal
- Which bones has the hypoglossal canal?
- occipital
- Which bones has a cribiform plate?
- ethmoid
- What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?
- zygomatic
- which bone lie in the orbit?
- frontal maxilla sphenoid
- Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?
- vomer
- Which bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?
- lacrimal
- The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?
- temporal
- pairs of foramina are in the mandible?
- mental and mandibular
- The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the
- petrous portion
- The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?
- temporal
- The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?
- sphenoid
- pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?
- palatine and maxilla
- correct listing of paranasal sinuses?
- ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
- Which bones houses the foramen magnum?
- occipital
- The head of the humerus articulates with the
- glenoid cavity
- The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?
- frontal
- The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?
- ethmoid
- The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the
- pterygoid processes
- Which bones has wings?
- sphenoid
- The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?
- vomer and maxilla
- The ramus and the angle are parts of which bone?
- mandible
- Which groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?
- stapes, malleus, and incus
- Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?
- ethmoid and frontal
- Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of
- the neck
- Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of
- mastication
- What is the only bone of the skull that is freely movable relative to the rest of the skull bones?
- mandible
- How many cervical vertebrae are there?
- 7
- How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
- 12
- The first cervical vertebrae is known as the
- atlas
- The second cervical vertebrae is known as the
- axis
- The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the
- vertebral foramen
- Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the
- pedicle and lamina
- Which vertebra is immediately inferior to C-7?
- T-1
- Which vertebra is immediately inferior to T-12?
- L-1
- How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?
- 7
- The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?
- 5
- The most inferior portion of the sternum is the
- xiphoid process
- The most superior portion of the sternum is the
- manubrium
- How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?
- 2
- How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?
- 3
- The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as
- intervertebral foramen
- Which are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?
- costal cartilages
- The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?
- medial sacral crest
- The superior articular process of T-1 articulates with which process?
- inferior articular process of C-7
- Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?
- head and tubercle
- A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it
- does not have a body
- A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it
- has a dens
- A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they
- all have transverse foramina
- A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they
- all have facets for ribs
- What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?
- spinous processes
- Which serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?
- articular facets
- What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?
- muscles
- What passes through the foramen magnum?
- the spinal cord
- An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as
- scoliosis
- An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as
- lordosis
- Which of the following is a surgical removal of the posterior arch of a vertebra?
- laminectomy
- Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?
- mandible and ulna
- Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?
- tubercle
- The pectoral girdle is composed of which bones?
- scapula and clavicle
- The sternoclavicular joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?
- sternum and clavicle
- The glenohumeral joint is between, which of the following pairs of bones
- scapula and humerus
- The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the
- radius and ulna
- Medially the clavicle articulates with the
- sternum
- Laterally the clavicle articulates with the
- scapula
- The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the
- coracoid and acromion
- Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?
- humerus
- How many carpal bones are there in one hand?
- 8
- How many phalanges are there in one hand?
- 14
- How many phalanges does one thumb have?
- 2
- The carpal bones are arranged in which patterns?
- two rows of 4
- The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?
- second distal phalanx
- On the "pinky", the last digit is referred to as the
- 5th distal phalanx
- Styloid processes are found on which bones?
- temporal, radius, and ulna
- What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?
- olecranon process of the humerus
- Which of the bones is found in the proximal row of carpals?
- scaphoid; lunate ;triquetrum
- Which bones is found in the distal row of carpals?
- hamate; trapezoid ;pisiform
- The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the
- anatomical head
- Of the bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?
- deltoid tuberosity
- Where is the olecranon fossa located?
- posterior and distal portion of the humerus
- The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the
- ulna
- The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the
- ulna
- When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the
- olecranon process
- The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.
- styloid
- The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
- trochlea
- The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
- capitulum
- An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.
- sesamoid
- The term "phalanges" is the plural of which of the following?
- phalanx
- The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the
- humerus
- Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?
- radius
- The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the
- sacroiliac joint
- The joint between the pubic bones is known as the
- symphysis pubic
- Which is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?
- patella
- The fibula in relation to the tibia is
- lateral to the tibia
- The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the
- iliac crest
- The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?
- anterior superior iliac spine
- The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?
- acetabulum
- Which is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?
- obturator
- In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?
- Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
- The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?
- ankle to the foot
- Which is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?
- linea aspera
- Which is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?
- greater trochanter
- The most superior portion of the tibia is the
- intercondylar eminence
- Which is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?
- malleolus of the tibia
- The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?
- talus
- Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?
- calcaneus
- Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?
- cuboid
- There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?
- cuneiforms
- What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?
- sesamoid
- How many tarsal bones are there in one foot?
- 7
- How many phalanges are there in one foot?
- 14
- How many phalanges does one big toe have?
- 2
- How many total phalanges are there in the human body?
- 56
- The last digit of the little toe is known as the
- 5th distal phalanx
- Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?
- femur
- Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?
- lateral and medial condyles
- Which projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?
- medial condyle
- Which articulate with the femur
- coxal bone;patella ;tibia
- Watch for word clues staments like _______________are usually false.
- all, always, exactly, none, and never.
- cclavicle is part of the
- appendicular skeleton
- A knoblike lump on a bone is called a
- tuberosity.
- The superior and middle nasal conchae are formed by projections of the
- ethmoid bone.
- The crista galli
- is an attachment site for the membranes that surround the brain.
- The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____________ form the nasal septum.
- vomer
- Which bones contain a paranasal sinus?
- styloid process; occipital condyle. zygomatic arch. medial pterygoid.
- The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the
- cribriform plate.
- The major blood supply to the brain enters through the
- foramen magnum and carotid canals.
- The site of the sella turcica is the
- sphenoid bone.
- Which bones is in contact with the sphenoid bone?
- maxilla; ethmoid; parietal; vomer
- The thoracic curvature becomes exaggerated in .
- kyphosis
- The lumbar curvature becomes exaggerated in .
- lordosis
- The sacral curvature develops before
- birth.
- The lumbar curvature develops as an
- infant learns to sit and walk.
- A herniated disk occurs when
- the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
- The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the
- body.
- Transverse foramina are found only in
- cervical vertebrae.
- Articular facets on the bodies and transverse processes are found only on
- thoracic vertebrae.
- Medially facing, superior articular processes and laterally facing, inferior articular processes are found on
- lumbar vertebrae.
- The true ribs attach directly to
- the sternum with costal cartilage.
- The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the
- acromion process.
- The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the
- trochlea.
- The depression on the anterior surface of the humerus that receives part of the ulna when the forearm is flexed (bent) is the
- coronoid fossa.
- which point of muscle attachment on the pectoral girdle or upper limb
- epicondyles; radial tuberosity; spine of scapula; greater tubercle
- arm parts with the number of bones
- 1
- foreman parts with the number of bones
- 2
- palm of hand parts with the number of bones
- 5
- fingers parts with the number of bones
- 14
- The bone of the foot that the tibia rests upon is the
- talus.
- A place where nerves or blood vessels pass from the trunk to the lower limb is the
- greater sciatic notch.
- A projection on the pelvic girdle that is used as a landmark for finding an injection site is the
- anterior superior iliac spine.
- When comparing the pectoral girdle to the pelvic girdle,
- The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the pectoral girdle.
- When comparing a male pelvis to a female pelvis,
- The ischial spines in males are closer together.
- A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the
- greater trochanter.
- A process that forms the outer ankle is the lateral
- malleolus.
- diarthrosis
- freely moveable joint
- synarthrosis
- joint that has little or no movement
- amphiarthrosis
- joint that is slightly moveable
- synovial
- is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule
- fibrous is held together with
- collagenous fibers
- cartilaginous is held together with
- cartilage
- The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of
- synarthrosis
- Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are
- amphiarthrosis
- The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of
- diarthrosis
- sutures
- forms the joints between the skull bones
- gomphoses
- attaches the teeth into their sockets
- syndesmoses
- holds two bones tightly together with a ligament
- syndesmoses joint between
- the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula
- synchondrosis cartilaginous joints
- the pubic bones
- Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one
- synostosis
- Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.
- ball-and-socket
- articular disks
- fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint
- biaxial
- a movement that is in two planes
- the types of synovial joints that is the most freely moveable?
- ball and socket
- condyloid is found
- between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones
- In which types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?
- pivot
- saddle is the
- trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb
- Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?
- flexion and extension
- Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?
- abduction
- of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?
- abduction
- Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?
- protraction
- Of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?
- circumduction
- Of the diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?
- lateral and medial excursion
- Of the diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?
- opposition and reposition
- Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?
- protraction and retraction
- Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?
- inversion and eversion
- Of the diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?
- dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
- Which one of diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?
- elevation
- Which of the diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?
- elevation
- Which of the diarthrotic movements is the pitcher's arm in a baseball game?
- circumduction
- Which of the movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?
- plantar flexion
- Which of the movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?
- supination
- Where is the talocrural joint?
- ankle
- The rotator cuff is located in which joints?
- shoulder
- The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which joints?
- elbow
- The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?
- hip
- sprain is a
- torn ligament or tendon
- The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?
- knee
- gout is a
- is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain
- osteoarthritis is the
- most common form of arthritis referred to as "wear-and-tear" arthritis
- Which conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?
- rheumatoid arthritis
- Which is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?
- bursitis
- Severely damaged joints can be replaced with artificial joints. The correct term for this procedure is
- arthroplasty
- Which is a bacterial disease spread by the bite of a tick that can affect joints?
- lyme disease
- The term "suppurative arthritis" refers to arthritis that results from
- infectious agents
- tuberculosis arthritis is an example of
- suppurative arthritis"?
- In people that wear pointed shoes, the great toe can be deformed and displaced laterally. This condition is known as
- hallux valgus
- the symphysis pubis is between the
- two pubic bones
- describes a muscle motor unit?
- one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve
- Which types of joints are bones united by fibrous connective tissue, with no joint cavity, and with little or no movement?
- syndesmosis
- A wide area between sutures in a newborn is called a
- fontanel.
- The radioulnar joint, or interosseus membrane, is an example of a
- syndesmosis
- When the epiphyseal plate becomes the epiphyseal line, the synchondrosis joint becomes a
- synostosis
- The articulations between the teeth and the alveolar processes are
- gomphoses
- The articulation between the first rib and the sternum is a
- synchondrosis.
- Which types of joints exhibits the greatest amount of movement?
- synovial joints
- Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton are
- synovial joints.
- Synovial joints are always enclosed by a
- joint capsule.
- Articular surfaces of bones within synovial joints are covered with
- articular cartilage.
- Synovial fluid is secreted by
- the synovial membrane.
- In synovial joints, blood vessels and nerves do not enter the
- articular cartilage and joint cavity
- A pocket, or sac, filled with synovial fluid that extends for a distance away from the rest of the joint cavity is called
- a bursa.
- Which structures is covered with synovial membrane?
- bursa; joint cavity; tendon sheath
- An example of a plane, or gliding, joint is the
- articular processes between vertebrae.
- The joint between the dens of the axis and the atlas is a(n)
- pivot joint.
- The joint between the occipital condyles and the atlas (atlantooccipital joint) is a(n)
- ellipsoid joint.
- Raising your arm to point at something straight ahead of you involves
- flexion of the arm.
- Moving your arm laterally away from your body is
- abduction.
- Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your thigh?
- flexion
- Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?
- extension
- When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back. In this position, the suspect's arms are
- extended.
- When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be
- supinated
- To walk on her toes, a ballerina must be able to __________ her feet for long periods of time.
- plantarflex
- You are sitting on a chair. To stand up, you must __________ your thighs and __________ your legs.
- extend, extend
- Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires
- extension of the neck.
- Touching the thumb with the little finger is called
- opposition.
- A person who is standing and bends to tie their shoe is __________ their trunk.
- flexing
- A person who is standing in the anatomic position has their hands __________ and their forearms __________.
- supinated, extended
- A baby in the fetal position has most of its joints
- flexed
- Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don't know the answer to a question involves
- elevation of the scapulae.
- Which movements required for a person in the military to salute?
- flexion of the forearm; abduction of the arm
- Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is
- lateral excursion of the mandible.
- The temporomandibular joint is predominately a(n)
- ellipsoid joint.
- The ligamentum teres is found in this joint in 80% of the population.
- hip
- Which joints has the largest number of ligaments and bursae?
- knee
- Which joints has neither fibrocartilage articular disks nor a labrum to support the joint?
- ankle
- Which movements of the foot causes ankle sprains most frequently?
- inversion
- Which is commonly used for classifying joints in the body?
- the connective tissue that binds the bones together and the degree of motion at each joint
- Given these types of joints: 1. gomphosis 2. suture 3. symphysis 4. synchondrosis 5. syndesmosis Choose the types that are held together by fibrous connective tissue.
- 1,2,5
- Given these types of joints: 1. gomphosis 2. suture 3. symphysis 4. synchondrosis 5. syndesmosis Choose the types that are held together by cartilage.
- 3,4
- matched with the correct joint type? parietal bone to occipital bone
- suture
- matched with the correct joint type? between the coxae
- symphysis
- matched with the correct joint type? humerus and scapula
- synovial
- matched with the correct joint type? teeth in alveolar process
- gomphosis
- The epiphyseal plate can be described as a type of joint. Term that describes the joint before growth in the length of the bone has ended.
- synchondrosis
- Which joints are often temporary, with bone replacing them?
- synchondroses
- Which joints are the most movable?
- synovial
- In which joints are periodontal ligaments found?
- gomphoses
- The intervertebral disks are an example of
- symphyses
- Joints containing hyaline cartilage are called ______________, and joints containing fibrocartilage are called ______________.
- synchondroses; symphyses
- The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist would likely be caused by a disorder of the
- synovial membrane.
- Which bone is associated with synovial joints?
- fibrous capsule;synovial membrane; synovial fluid; bursae
- All of the costochondral joints, except for the first, usually develop into
- synovial joints.
- Assume that a sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From this list of structures: 1. tendon or muscle 2. ligament 3. articular cartilage 4. fibrous capsule (of joint capsule) 5. skin 6. synovial membrane (of joint capsule) Choose the order in
- 5,1,2,4,6,3
- Which hinge joints and saddle joints have in common?
- Both are synovial joints.
- matched with the type of joint? tibia to talus
- hinge
- Once a doorknob is grasped, what movement of the forearm is necessary to unlatch the door, that is, turn the knob in a clockwise direction? (Assume using the right hand.)
- supination
- After the door is unlatched, what movement of the elbow is necessary to open it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the inside.)
- flexion
- After the door is unlatched, what movement of the shoulder is necessary to close it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the inside.)
- extension
- When grasping a doorknob, the thumb and little finger undergo
- opposition.
- Spreading the fingers apart is
- abduction.
- A runner notices that the lateral side of her right shoe is wearing much more than the lateral side of her left shoe. This could mean that her right foot undergoes more ______________ than her left foot.
- inversion
- For a ballet dancer to stand on her toes, her feet must
- plantar flex.
- A meniscus is found in the
- knee joint.
- A lip (labrum) of fibrocartilage deepens the joint cavity of the
- shoulder joint.
- Which joints has a tendon inside the joint cavity?
- shoulder joint
- Which structures help to stabilize the shoulder joint?
- rotator cuff muscles
- Bursitis of the subacromial bursa could result from
- overuse of the shoulder joint.
- Which does occur with the aging of joints?
- decrease in production of new cartilage matrix; decline in synovial fluid production; weakening of muscles; increase in protein cross-linking in tissues
- The tissue surrounding an entire muscle is known as
- epimysium
- The tissue that surrounds a muscle cell (myofiber) is known as
- endomysium
- Muscle fibers are bundled into groups known as
- fascicles
- Bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) are wrapped by a tissue known as
- perimysium
- A connective tissue on the surface of muscles (that extends onto the tendon and bone) is known as
- fascia
- One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has conductivity. describes this characteristic?
- Muscles can stretch when needed.
- One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has excitability. describes this characteristic?
- Muscles contract when stimulated.
- Which groups are considered to be parts of the series-elastic components of muscle?
- endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons
- describes the function of the series-elastic component of muscle?
- These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic.
- What part of a muscle is the muscle fiber?
- muscle cell itself
- The outer membrane of the muscle fiber is known as the
- sarcolemma.
- The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber is known as the
- sarcoplasm.
- The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber contains a molecule to distribute oxygen within the cell. This molecule is known as
- myoglobin
- The molecule within the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber that supplies quick energy for contraction is
- glycogen.
- The myofilaments within the muscle fiber are composed of three integral items. Which of the following lists the components correctly?
- myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament.
- Thick filaments within the myofibril are composed of
- myosin
- Thin filaments within the myofibril are composed primarily of
- actin
- The elastic filaments within a myofibril are composed of molecules known as
- titin
- The elastic filaments within a myofibril are attached to and wound around, which of the following?
- myosin
- In the myofibril, ATP is used for which of the following?
- muscle tone; muscle contraction; muscle relaxation
- Which tissues has the greatest ability to repair itself?
- smooth muscle
- Of the muscles types, which one has long, cylindrical-shaped cells?
- skeletal muscle
- Of the muscle types, which one has only one nucleus?
- smooth muscle
- Of the muscle types, which one does NOT have striations?
- smooth muscle
- Of the muscle types, which one have striations?
- skeletal muscle; cardiac muscle
- Of the muscle types, which one is usually voluntary?
- skeletal muscle
- Objects that move through organs that are surrounded by smooth muscle are often moved by means of
- peristalsis.
- Of the muscle types, which one is found in the middle layer of the aorta?
- smooth muscle
- The "all-or-none" concept of skeletal muscle contraction means that
- muscle fibers contract completely.
- describes the use of muscle tone in the body?
- It keeps our backs straight and our heads up.
- Action potential frequency is best described as:
- The number of action potentials produced per unit of time.
- Triads in skeletal muscle consist of which of the following?
- two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule.
- When acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, what happens to the choline?
- It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine.
- The recovery stroke in muscle contraction involves which of the following?
- return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases
- Which of the following is one of the primary functions of muscle tissue?
- heat production
- The ability of a muscle to be stimulated is called
- excitability
- Which muscles is involuntary and is the most widely found throughout the body?
- smooth
- Which types of muscles contain intercalated discs and branching fibers?
- cardiac
- Which muscle types contains peripherally located, multiple nuclei in its cells?
- skeletal
- The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the Z line?
- an attachment point for actin molecules
- The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the I band?
- a band where only actin molecules are found
- The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which is the H band?
- a band where only myosin molecules are found
- Which is the A band within a myofibril?
- myosin myofilaments in profile
- Which is the unit in a myofibril from Z line to Z line?
- sarcomere
- On the surface of the sarcolemma, the voltage may shift up and down rapidly. This change in electrical potential caused by shifts in ions across the membrane is known as a(n)
- action potential
- During an action potential, calcium is released into the sarcoplasm, near the actin and myosin molecules. explanation of what the calcium does?
- The calcium removes the tropomyosin block.
- When the myosin head (of the thick filament) flexes into a bend, while releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate, pulling the thin filament along with it, this is called the
- power stroke
- When the thick and the thin filaments pull together
- The sarcomere gets shorter.
- The tissues of cardiac muscle have unique structures known as
- intercalated discs
- Intercalated discs are capable of doing which of the following?
- pass electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells
- Which is unique about cardiac muscle tissue?
- The cells have large mitochondria.
- cardiac tissuem has abundant
- glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic
- Joints are classified according to the
- struture of the joint
- Which proteins attaches Z discs to myosin myofilaments?
- titin
- The functional connection between a nerve fiber and a muscle fiber is called a(an)
- synapse.
- When the neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, what molecule diffuses across the gap between them?
- acetylcholine
- Once a signal molecule has left the neuron and binds to a receptor molecule on the surface of the muscle fiber, a sodium channel opens, allowing entry of sodium into the muscle fiber. Which substance is then released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
- calcium
- Muscle fibers and neurons are called electrically excitable cells because
- their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation
- Movement of proteins causes exposure of the active sites on the actin molecule?
- tropomyosin
- What type of molecule is acetylcholine?
- It is a neurotransmitter.
- Binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on muscle cells causes
- opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel
- What kind of molecule is ACh?
- protein
- In the muscle fiber, what is the function of acetylcholinesterase?
- It deactivates acetylcholine.
- What is the voltage of the resting potential of the sarcolemma?
- -70 mv
- Which is a molecule that binds to a receptor?
- acetylcholine
- Which assures quick removal of neurotransmitter at the junction between a nerve and a muscle?
- acetylcholinesterase
- A buildup of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft without breakdown may cause which of the following?
- spastic paralysis
- In a muscle twitch, which represents the time between application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction?
- lag
- Which determines the height of the peaks in multiple motor unit summation?
- the amount of tension produced by the number of motor units responding
- Which would represent incomplete tetanus?
- multiple contractions with slight relaxation
- Explain why treppe takes place in muscle contractions?
- increased calcium levels around the myofibrils
- isometric muscle contraction is
- The amount of tension increases during the contraction.
- Eccentric muscle contractions occur when
- a person slowly lowers a heavy weight
- muscle
- exists for long periods of time; helps maintain the head upright and Tension in the whole muscle remains constant
- Smooth body movements result from
- both incomplete and complete titanic contractions of motor units contracting out of phase with each other.
- The sum of active and passive tension is called
- total tension.
- Which types of muscle fatigue represents depletion of ATP?
- muscular
- Which types of fatigue is caused by the release of more acetylcholine than can be produced to replace it?
- synaptic
- Muscle soreness can be produced by which of the following?
- muscular fatigue; enzymes in the extracellular; fluid commonly found within muscle; collagen in the extracellular fluid
- Which represents extreme muscular fatigue when the muscle is incapable of either contracting or relaxing?
- physiological contracture
- Which energy storages source is most commonly used during the first 10 seconds of exercise?
- 2 ATP
- Which represents the amount of oxygen that is necessary for the body to recover from anaerobic respiration?
- oxygen debt
- characteristics of slow-twitch fibers
- slow contraction.good blood supply, and many mitochondria.
- characteristics fast-twitch fibers
- high amount of myoglobin.
- Which about distribution of fast and slow-twitch fibers in the body?
- Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue.
- A person with an arm immobilized in a cast for 6 weeks will
- develop muscular atrophy.
- Which effects of exercise elevate the body temperature?
- elevated metabolism from the oxygen debt; vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin; skeletal muscle contractions
- Unitary smooth muscle is found in which locations in the body?
- digestive tract;reproductive tract;urinary tract
- smooth muscle
- The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle.
- Which are the most common neurotransmitters in smooth muscle?
- acetylcholine and norepinephrine
- properties of cardiac muscle
- intercalated discs ;involuntary ;branching fibers
- an effect of aging on skeletal muscle?
- increased time for muscle to respond to stimuli; increased recovery time; loss of muscle fibers
- Which exercises slows the loss of muscle fibers in older people?
- swimming
- Which is true about skeletal muscle fibers in aging people?
- The number of fibers decreases.There is a decreased density of capillaries that supply muscle cells.The number of motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle decreases.
- A type of muscle that extends a joint is known as a(n)
- extensor
- When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed its
- origin
- When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its
- insertion
- When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction. Such a muscle is called a(an)
- antagonist
- For the following muscle shapes, which one is thick and tapered like the biceps brachii muscle?
- fusiform
- For the following muscle shapes, which one is feather shaped, like the muscles of the palm?
- pennate
- For the following muscle shapes, which one is fan shaped like the chest muscles?
- convergent
- When a muscle contracts, there may be another muscle that contracts along with it. Which of the following terms describes that type of muscle?
- synergist
- Of the following muscles of the head, which one encircles the outer border of the orbits?
- orbicularis oculi
- Of the muscles of the head, which one aids in chewing?
- masseter
- Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the side of the head?
- temporalis
- Of the muscles of the head, which one wraps around the mouth?
- orbicularis oris
- Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the nose?
- nasalis
- Of the muscles of the head, which one is on the cheek?
- zygomaticus major
- Of the muscles of the head, which one is over the temporal bone?
- temporalis
- Of muscles of the head, which one is in the back of the head?
- occipitalis
- Which muscles of the head draws in the corner of the mouth, as in grimacing?
- depressor labii
- Which muscles of the head opens the eyes and raises the upper eyelid?
- levator palpebrae superioris
- Which muscles of the head elevates and protrudes the lower lip, as in pouting?
- mentalis
- Which muscles is (are) attached to the tongue?
- genioglossus; hypoglossus ;styloglossus
- Which muscles of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side?
- sternocleidomastoid
- Which muscles of the neck flexes the neck laterally?
- scalenes
- Of the back muscles , which is the largest?
- trapezius
- Which muscles of the back has its origin on the occipital bone?
- trapezius
- Which muscles of the back adducts, and rotates the arm laterally?
- infraspinatus
- Which muscles of the back has its insertion on the humerus?
- latissimus dorsi
- Which muscles of the lower back inserts on the humerus and helps to move the arm?
- latissimus dorsi
- Which muscles of the back attaches to thoracic and lumbar vertebrae up and down the spine?
- longissimus thoracis
- Which muscles elevate the ribs for inspiration?
- scalenes; external intercostals ;serratus posterior (superior part
- Which muscles is the major muscle for respiration?
- diaphragm
- Which is the deepest abdominal muscle?
- transversus abdominis
- Which muscles depresses the ribs in respiration?
- internal intercostals
- Which muscles inserts at the mid-humerus?
- deltoid
- Which muscles moves the arms up, as in asking a question in class?
- deltoid
- Which muscles inserts on the radius?
- biceps brachii
- Which muscles extends the forearm and inserts on the ulna?
- triceps brachii
- Which muscles is an extensor?
- triceps brachii
- Of the muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm laterally?
- supinator
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one flexes and abducts the wrist?
- flexor carpi radialis
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs along the lateral side of he forearm, and extends and abducts the wrist?
- extensor carpi radialis longus
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one is a large muscle that connects the ulna to the distal phalanges? It flexes the distal joints of the fingers.
- flexor digitorum profundus
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs medially along the forearm and connects the humerus to the middle phalanges?
- flexor digitorum superficialis
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one is a slender muscle connecting the distal end of the humerus to the fascia of the palm? It flexes the wrist.
- palmaris longus
- Of the muscles that work the hand, which one runs from the humerus to the phalanges and extends the fingers and wrist?
- extensor digitorum
- Of the muscles of the forearm, which one has its origin on the mid-humerus and its insertion on the coronoid process of the ulna? It flexes the forearm at the elbow.
- brachialis
- A place where two or more bones come together is an
- joint and an articulation.
- The sagittal suture is between the
- two parietal bones
- The sacroiliac joint is between the
- sacrum and coxa
- A joing that has no joing cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a
- fibrous joint
- The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a
- gomphosis
- Cartilaginous joints
- unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage.
- Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints
- are enclose by a joint capsule
- synovial fluid
- decreases friction between bones
- joint that is most movable?
- synovial
- Articular cartilage
- covers the ends of bones in synovial joints.
- The function of a bursa is to
- provide a fluid filled cushion
- ball and socket joint are
- multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement
- The cubital or elbow joint is an example of a
- hinge joint.
- Of the muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?
- biceps femoris
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the anterior midline?
- rectus femoris
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the medial side of the thigh and pulls the leg inward?
- adductor magnus
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group?
- biceps femoris
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one does NOT pull the leg forward?
- biceps femoris
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is the most superior?
- iliacus
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is a narrow band that is on the medial side and moves from the pubis to the tibia?
- gracilis
- Of the following muscles, which one attaches to the spine of the lesser trochanter?
- psoas major
- Of the following muscles, which one has its origin on the pubic bone and its insertion on the posterior surface (linea aspera) of the femur?
- adductor longus
- Of the following muscles of the thigh which one has its origin on the ilium, sacrum and coccyx and its insertion on the posterior surface of the femur?
- gluteus maximus
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one inserts on the head of the fibula?
- biceps femoris
- Of the following muscles of the thigh which one is on the medial side of the anterior thigh?
- vastus medialis
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?
- semitendinosus
- Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial condyle of the tibia?
- semimembranosus
- Which muscles would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?
- biceps femoris
- Which muscles would be considered an antagonist to the gluteus maximus?
- rectus femoris
- Which muscles inserts on the linea aspera of the femur?
- adductor magnus
- Of the muscles of the lower leg, which one is on the anterior side?
- tibialis anterior
- muscles of the leg, which one inserts on the calcaneus
- gastrocnemius
- muscles of the leg, which one attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon?
- soleus
- Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is an antagonist to the soleus?
- tibialis anterior
- Of the following muscles, which one flexes the toes?
- flexor digitorum longus
- Of the following muscles, which one pulls the heel up?
- soleus
- Which of the following muscles flexes the hip and extends the knee?
- rectus femoris
- Which of the following muscles causes flexion at both the knee and hip, and allows a person to cross the legs while seated?
- sartorius
- Which of the following muscles adducts the leg at the hip?
- gracilis
- Which of the following muscles inverts the foot?
- tibialis anterior
- Which of the following muscles is considered a "lateral hamstring," based on its insertion?
- biceps femoris