Dash 1 Chapter 1

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What is the wingspan of the T-37?: 33.80 feet
What is the length of the T-37?: 29.30 feet
What is the height of the T-37?: 9.20 feet
What is the nominal gross weight of the T-37?: 7000 lbs (includes two pilots, full internal fuel)
What type of engine is found on the T-37?: Continental J69-T-25A engine (centrifugal flow gas turbine, single air inlet, single stage turbine)
What is the Military power rating of the J69?: 1025 lbs
What two things make up the Engine Fuel Control System?: The engine-driven fuel pump unit and the fuel control unit
What three things make up the engine-driven fuel pump?: A centrifugal pump and two gear-type pumps
What acts as a suction pump in case of boost pump failure?: The centrifugal pump
What three things make up the fuel control unit?: Speed governing element, acceleration control, starting fuel solenoid valve (GAS)
What regulates the fuel flow to the starting nozzles during the starting cycle?: The starting fuel solenoid valve
What regulates the fuel flow through the governor control valve to maintain the engine speed selected by the position of the throttle regardless of airspeed or altitude changes?: The speed governing element
What prevents overtemperature and engine surge during rapid throttle movements?: The acceleration control
Engine surges and/or bangs above RPM and feet MSL are the result of what?: 95%, 15000â€™ MSL, too rapid throttle movement (does not indicate abnormal engine conditions)
If engine surges or bangs occur at any other time what should you do?: Write it up in the 781 at the end of the mission
What is the most effective way to achieve acceleration?: Move the throttles forward rapidly
Avoid rapid throttle movement above what altitude?: 25000â€™ MSL
Avoid flight above what altitude?: 35000â€™ MSL
Fuel will not be supplied to the fuel distributor with a throttle out of the CUT-OFF position until the engine reaches approximately to RPM.: 8 to 12% (does not apply to starting fuel flow)
What do you do to correct an engine surge?: Reduce the power on the affected engine
What may occur at high altitudes or at any altitude when throttles are advanced rapidly?: A compressor whine
A mechanical failure of the throttle interconnect linkage could disconnect the instructorâ€™s throttles from the interconnect system and results in what two things?: Loss of idle stop feature and significantly increases the potential for an inadvertent engine shutdown
When does the engine ice warning light illuminate?: When ice forms on the ice detect probe in the left engine air inlet duct
How is the heating element in the detect probe turned on?: Automatically after a brief period of icing
How long does it take for ice to melt from the detect probe?: Approximately 5 seconds
Why might retarding the left throttle rapidly cause the engine ice warning light to illuminate?: Due to negative pressure in the ice detect probe
When will the engine ice warning light illuminate during left engine shutdown?: After the left throttle is placed in CUTOFF and before the left engine RPM reaches 0
What comprises each ignition system (2 one for each engine)?: An ignition coil, two fuel igniters, and a two-position channel guarded ignition switch
Is ignition used to sustain combustion once the engine has started?: No
What does each starting system consist of?: A starter switch and a combination starter-generator located on the forward portion of the engine
Is external power required for starting the engine?: No
How long is starting fuel and ignition supplied when the starter switch is placed to AIR and released?: 30-45 seconds
How do you stop ignition once the starter switch has been placed in AIR: Disrupt DC power (battery and generators to OFF)
What powers the tachometers?: They are self-generating and operate independently of the aircraft electrical system (except for instrument lighting)
What is the rated RPM of the Tweet?: 21,730 RPM
What powers the EGT indicators?: They are self-generating instruments, electrical current supplied by six thermocouples located in tailpipe of each engine
What powers the fuel flow indicators and the oil pressure indicators?: 26-volt single-phase AC bus
Why does the Tweet have an oil system?: For lubricating and cooling
What is the capacity of each oil system?: 6 quarts
What is the usable capacity of each oil system?: 4.5 quarts
How many fuel cells are located in each wing tank?: 6
How is fuel transferred from the wing tanks to the fuselage tank in normal operations?: Under pressure by an electrical proportioner pump
How is fuel transferred from the wing tanks to the fuselage tank in an emergency?: Gravity fed (fuel is then supplied to the engines from the fuselage tank by an electrical fuel boost pump)
What does the fuel boost pump do?: Supplies fuel under low, positive pressure to both engines, which helps prevent high altitude engine surge and provides fuel to reprime the engine-driven fuel pump in the event of cavitation
How many times can you reset a popped fuel boost pump circuit breaker?: Never because a short circuit and accompanying arcing in an enclosed fuel cell could result in an explosion
With the fuel shutoff t-handle in the PUSH-ON position what is happening?: Fuel flow is permitted from the fuel boost pump to the engine fuel control
How long can it take for an engine to stop running in IDLE after a fuel shutoff t-handle has been positioned to PULL-OFF?: 10 seconds
When is the most accurate fuel quantity check obtained?: Unaccelerated, wings level, coordinated flight
With the fuel system switch in NORMAL, the are closed and the is energized: Solenoid-lock fuel shutoff valves (gravity feed valves), fuel proportioner circuit
With the fuel system switch in EMERGENCY, the are opened and the is deenergized: Solenoid-lock fuel shutoff valves (gravity feed valves), fuel proportioner circuit
What controls the illumination of the amber gravity feed light?: The position of the solenoid-lock fuel shutoff valves (open â€“ light on, closed â€“ light off)
When will the fuel low-level warning light illuminate?: When fuel in the fuselage tank reaches a level of 380 +/- 30 pounds
Normal operation of the fuel transfer system will maintain the fuel level in the fuselage tank between and pounds until when?: 430 and 590 pounds until the wing tanks are depleted
Fuel imbalance because of improper fueling may not be noticed until approximately how many minutes after takeoff and why?: 10 minutes because of unsensed fuel in the tanks
What check should be made regardless of whether the aircraft is on the ground or is airborne?: 1720 to 1820 check
An imbalance of how many pounds can exist with no malfunction of the system?: 160 pounds
How many pounds does a gallon of JP-8 fuel weigh?: 6.83 pounds
How much total usable fuel is can the T-37 hold?: 2110 pounds (309 gallons)
How much usable fuel in level flight can the fuselage tank hold?: 594 pounds (87 gallons)
How much usable fuel in level flight can each of the wing tanks hold?: 758 pounds (111 gallons)
Why might fuel appear to be trapped but feed after the fuel level in the fuselage tank drops below the inlet vent from the wing tanks?: Because portions of the wing tanks are located slightly lower than the fuselage tank (approximately the same level as the low level float switch in the fuselage tank)
The fuel system will automatically convert to emergency operation (gravity feed) under what conditions?: If the fuel level descends for any reason to the low-level float switch - If an electrical failure in the proportioner pump circuit occurs - If an electrical or mechanical failure occurs in the proportioner pump - A complete loss of electrical power
What indication would you receive if the high-level float switch was malfunctioning?: An excessive drop in fuel quantity (high-level float switch is pumping fuel overboard through the fuselage tank vent valve)
What type of fuel is recommended for normal operations?: JP-8 (contains icing inhibitor)
What should you be aware of when using alternate fuels?: Alternate fuels have freezing points higher than JP-8 and may not contain icing inhibitors
When fuels are mixed, what determines the operating restrictions?: The fuel making up the majority of the mix
At low temperatures, what may be more difficult when using alternate fuels?: Ground and air starts
You can use aviation gasoline for what type of mission?: As an emergency fuel and for one-time ferry missions only
What does aviation gasoline do to the T-37 engine?: Causes undesirable lead deposits in the engine and may damage the fuel control and fuel pump because of its poor lubricating properties
Engine inspection is necessary if engine has been operated for hours on aviation gasoline: 10 hours
What else do you have to add to aviation gasoline and how much?: Lubrication oil (3% by volume)
What three things can power the DC bus?: Auxiliary power unit, L/R generators, battery
What is hard-wired to the battery?: Canopy and spare inverter
What is powered by the 115 volt AC 3 phase bus?: Heading indicator, ARU-44A, Radio navigation
What is powered by the 115 volt AC single phase bus?: Fuel quantity indicator, A/C, Stall warning, Transponder
What is powered by the 26 volt AC single phase bus?: Left/right fuel flow indicator, left/right oil pressure indicator, hydraulic pressure indicator
What is powered by the 5 volt AC single phase bus?: Primary flight instrument lights
What are the AC only operated equipment?: ARU-44A, Liquid flow indicators (hydraulic, fuel flow, fuel quantity, oil pressure), Lights (primary flight instrument lights)
What are the AC/DC operated equipment?: Heading system, A/C, IFF, Radio Nav, Stall warning
How many volts are in the DC power supply?: 28 volts
What powers the DC power supply?: Two engine-driven 200-ampere generators and a 24-volt, 34-ampere-hour battery
What is generator cut-in speed?: 38-42%
If both generators fail the battery will provide power for approximately minutes: 25 minutes
What controls the generatorâ€™s voltage and current (load) outputs?: The voltage regulators
The regulators try to keep % as the maximum load difference between the generators: 20%
What does the RCR do?: The reverse current relay connects and disconnects the generator to the DC electrical system
When will the loadmeter read zero?: When the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage or the generator switch is placed in the OFF position
Where is the APU hookup located?: On the left-hand nose section
What protects the DC electrical power supply system?: Circuit breakers
What circuit breakers are located in the left-hand nose section?: The generators (L/R), the canopy, and the spare inverter
What circuit breakers are located in the right-hand nose section?: Taxi light, Anticollision light, Passing light, Position lights, IFF, Nosewheel steering, DME, Engine anti-icing
When the battery switch is turned ON, the battery is connected directly to the DC bus through a relay, provided a minimum of to volts are available: 17 to 18 volts
When will the battery relay open?: When the battery switch is turned OFF or if the DC bus is deenergized and battery voltage falls below 10 volts
The loadmeters are calibrated to read from to .: -0.1 to 1.25
AC power is provided by a V AC, three-phase, cycle, solid state main inverter: 500, 400
A V AC rotary spare inverter is provided as a safety feature: 250
What powers the main and spare inverters?: The aircraft DC system
What protects the AC circuits?: Fuses
What instruments use 2-amp fuses?: Nav fuses (two), ARU-44A, Left J-2 compass fuse
While replacing a fuse the inverter should be in what position and why?: OFF to prevent the crew member from receiving a shock
Where is the battery located?: Left-hand nose compartment
Where is the engine oil tank located?: (If youâ€™re sitting in the cockpit) left wing just outside of engine
What does the hydraulic power supply system consist of?: Two engine-driven hydraulic pumps (one on each engine)
Is either pump capable of maintaining full system pressures?: Yes (time for component actuation will be longer)
Any sudden surges in the hydraulic system are absorbed by what?: The aircharged accumulator
What maintains hydraulic pressure â€œin the greenâ€?: A pressure regulator
What is â€œin the greenâ€ for the hydraulic system?: 1250 to 1550 psi
What protects the system in case of regulator failure?: A pressure relief valve, spring-loaded to relieve at a slightly higher pressure
Where is the emergency landing gear extension air bottle located?: The nosewheel well
When might the hydraulic pressure momentarily indicate zero?: If the hydraulic systems are selected in rapid order
In which direction do the main landing gear retract?: Inboard into the lower surface of the wing
In which direction does the nose gear retract?: Forward into the nose section of the fuselage
How long does it take to retract the landing gear and doors?: 10 seconds
How long does it take to extend the landing gear and doors?: 8 seconds
What does the locking device in the instructorâ€™s landing gear handle do?: Holds the handle down until there is no weight on the landing gear
What does pressing the landing gear emergency override switch do?: Cuts electrical power to the solenoid lock which holds the landing gear handles down (allows the landing gear to collapse while the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear if hydraulic pressure is available)
What should you do if the solenoid-lock pin binds making it impossible to raise the landing gear handle?: Push the landing gear handle down, then depress the emergency override switch followed by raising the landing gear handle
The landing gear emergency extension system contains approximately how many psi of air?: 2000 +/- 250 psi
Why should you not attempt to return the t-handle to IN after actuation of the emergency system?: Will cause the air pressure to bleed off from the down side of the gear
Why should you not attempt to retract the gear when the emergency system is used?: The hydraulic reservoir may rupture
Will the emergency extension system provide sufficient additional pressure to help lower gear if the landing gear will not fully extend when normal hydraulic pressure is available?: No
When do the landing gear position lights illuminate?: When its respective gear is down and locked
The landing gear warning light is located where?: Inside each wheel-shaped knob on the landing gear handle
When will the landing gear warning light illuminate during gear extension?: Whenever any landing gear is not in a fully down and locked position and electrical power is available
When will the landing gear warning light extinguish during gear retraction?: When the nose gear strut and both inboard main gear doors are up and locked
When will the landing gear warning light illuminate and the audible warning signal be heard?: When a throttle is retarded to between IDLE and 70% RPM, and the gear is not down and locked
When is the audible warning silenced and when does it automatically reset?: Silenced by the silencing switch, reset each time the retarded throttle is advanced past approximately 70%
The nosewheel steering unit will position the nosewheel within approximately how many degrees of center when the aircraft is on the ground?: 40 degrees
The nosewheel can swivel how many degrees to either side of center when what is used?: 50 degrees, wheel brakes
What two purposes does the steer-damper serve?: Steers the nosewheel during power controlled operations and serves as a shimmy damper with power on or off
Nosewheel steering may be selected at any time while what three things are available?: Weight of the aircraft is on the nosewheel, hydraulic and electrical power are available
What does the nose gear centering spring do?: Centers the nose gear strut during retraction and extension operations
What should you do with the rudder pedals before engaging nosewheel steering?: Center the rudder pedals
How would you control steering in the event of a complete hydraulic or electrical failure?: Rudder movement and aircraft brakes
Is the brake system set apart from the hydraulic power supply system?: Yes (it is a manually operated, independent, hydraulic system)
What emergency braking provisions are provided on the aircraft?
The speed brake and what operate hydraulically through one system?: Thrust attenuators
Where is the speed brake located?: Bottom side of nose section just aft of the nosewheel well (hinged at the forward edge)
What is the function of the thrust attenuators?: To reduce effective thrust while maintaining engine RPM that will allow more rapid engine acceleration
The effective thrust reduction is equivalent to reducing engine speed from percent RPM to approximately percent RPM with thrust attenuator extended: 60 to 50% RPM

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Number of cards 140