T-38C Master Question File - August 2005

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Approximately how long will the ignition circuit remain armed after pressing the start button? A. 20 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 60 seconds: Answer: B
The fuel crossfeed switch operates on ____ power? A. Left AC B. Right AC C. DC: Answer: C
Normally, gravity feed will ensure sufficient fuel flow to operate the engines at up to MAX power from sea level to approximately ___ feet? A. 6,000 B. 12,000 C. 15,000 D. 25,000: Answer: D
Crossfeed operation may be used to: A. Supply fuel to one engine from both systems B. Operate both engines on fuel from one system C. Balance the systems by drawing fuel from one tank to the other D. All of the above E. A and B o: Answer: E
If a fuel pressure caution light blinks while initiating the afterburner: A. deselect afterburner and abort the mission B. boost pump failure is indicated C. this is normal, continue the mission D. A and B above: Answer: C
A rapid fuel imbalance can occur with the crossfeed switch on and: A. both boost pumps off B. both boost pumps on C. good crossover D. a or b above: Answer: D
The fuel quantity low-level light will illuminate after a ___ second delay when ___ fuel quantity indicator reads below ___ pounds. A. 7.5; both; 250+/-25 B. 7.5; either; 250+/-25 C. 7.5; both; 275 +/-50 D. 7.5; either; 275 +/-50: Answer: B
An airframe mounted gearbox for each engine operates a(an) ___ and a(an) ___. A. Transformer-rectifier; hydraulic pump B. hydraulic pump; oil pump C. AC generator; oil pump D. hydraulic pump; AC generator: Answer: D
The AC generators begin supplying power to the aircraft when the engine reaches a range of ___ to ___ %RPM. A. 40; 45 B. 43; 48 C. 48; 53 D. 60; 65: Answer: B
If one or both transformer-rectifiers fail, the XFMR RECT OUT light on the console will illuminate. A. True B. False: Answer: B
The transformer-rectifiers: A. Convert AC to DC power B. Convert DC to AC power C. Supply the right engine instruments AC power during engine start D. B and C above: Answer: A
A single transformer-rectifier failure is indicated by: A. A Pilot Fault List (PFL) display B. Illumination of the XFMR RECT OUT light C. A complete loss of DC power D. A complete loss of AC power on the respective AC bus: Answer: A
AC electrical power for the right engine instruments is supplied by the ___during normal engine starts. A. Static inverter B. Transformer-rectifier C. Right generator D. Battery: Answer: A
An overheat condition in the forward engine compartment will illuminate ____ bulb(s) of the respective fire warning light in both cockpits. A. one. B. both. C. neither a or b.: Answer: B
The hydraulic caution lights will illuminate for: A. a low-pressure condition below 1,500 psi. B. a high-pressure condition above 3,200 psi. C. excessively high hydraulic fluid temperature. D. a and c. E. all of the above.: Answer: D
You will lose control of flap movement if you lose what type of power? A. Left AC. B. Right AC. C. DC. D. b or c.: Answer: D
The flap slab interconnect will not: A. reposition the slab to eliminate pitch changes due to flap movement. B. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-down direction. C. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-up direction. D.: Answer: C
If the wing flap lever is between the 0-60 % position or 60-100 % position, the flaps may still extend or retract. A. True. B. False.: Answer: B
Activation of the speedbrake requires _____ power. A. hydraulic and DC. B. hydraulic and AC. C. AC and DC. D. hydraulic, AC, and DC.: Answer: A
The landing gear warning system will be activated if the landing gear is not down and locked and: A. airspeed 210 KIAS or less, altitude 10,000 +/-750 feet or below, both throttles are below 96%. B. airspeed 240 KIAS or less, altitude 10,000 +/: Answer: A
Front cockpit pilot should not place the left foot outboard of the rudder pedal due to the possibility of striking the landing gear handle interconnect linkage causing: A. uncommanded gear retraction. B. hard over rudder. C. uncommanded de: Answer: A
With DC failure, the rear cockpit nose gear light _____ illuminate due to gear relay wiring. A. will. B. will not. C. may or may not.: Answer: B
Landing gear alternate extension may take up to: A. 35 seconds. B. 1 minute. C. 10 to 17 seconds.: Answer: A
During preflight, if the striker plate in the nose gear well is found in the extended position, check the reset lever in the reset _____ position. This resets all gear switches, but will not raise the striker plate. A. (down). B. (up). C.: Answer: B
If the canopy jettison is activated with the canopy in other than the closed and locked position, the canopy: A. will separate from the aircraft normally. B. will lock in position. C. could fall off its hinges and into the cockpit. D.: Answer: C
Hard items stored under the seat may puncture the cockpit floor when the seat is lowered, resulting in loss of cabin pressure. A. True B. False: Answer: A
The two bolts behind the ejection seat must be aligned with the arrows and reference line (or shoulder) of the catapult head. A. True B. False: Answer: A
If the drogue chute cover is not flush with the drogue chute container and if the canopy is lost or jettisoned in flight, wind blast effect could separate the drogue chute cover from the container and cause inadvertent drogue chute deployment. Chute depl: Answer: A
Physically checking the gear handle full down during the "BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION" is: A. technique only. B. required by the tech order. C. not necessary as long as you visually check.: Answer: B
The ______ will personally ensure that the rear canopy is closed and locked. A. crew chief B. pilot C. either a or b: Answer: B
If the aircraft will not accept external AC power, and the APU checks good: A. cycle the battery OFF, then ON. B. cycle the battery ON, then OFF. C. do not touch the battery switch; the battery is unserviceable.: Answer: B
On the ground, the minimum RPM required for engine start is _______. A. 10% B. 12% C. 14% D. 16%: Answer: B
During start, if ignition does not occur before fuel flow reaches 360 LB/HR, retard the throttle to OFF and: A. abort the aircraft. B. maintain airflow to permit fuel and vapors to purge. C. wait a minimum of 2 minutes before attempting an: Answer: D
If engine light is normal but rpm doesn't reach generator cut-in speed before termination of the start cycle, you should: A. push the engine start button to ensure aircraft electrical power is available. B. push the throttle up. C. abort t: Answer: A
Abort the start if EGT does not begin to rise within: A. 12 seconds after placing the throttle to idle. B. 12 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow. C. 15 seconds after placing the throttle to idle. D. 15 seconds after the f: Answer: B
While accomplishing the flight controls check, the pilot must visually confirm proper movement of the actual flight control surfaces. A. True B. False: Answer: A
If an APU was used to start the engines, you must: A. check the right generator for crossover. B. check the left generator for crossover. C. a and b. D. none of the above, since the APU checks the crossover itself.: Answer: C
Nosewheel tires are severely damaged when maximum deflection turns are attempted at speeds in excess of _____ knots. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20: Answer: B
To prevent possible canopy downlock mechanism damage, taxi with _____ and pressurized whenever practical. A. both canopies open B. both canopies closed C. one canopy open and one canopy closed D. a or b: Answer: D
Abort the takeoff if the afterburner does not light in _______ seconds. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. Do not abort the takeoff if the aircraft reaches MACS.: Answer: B
Less than predicted acceleration check speed will invalidate: A. CEFS. B. Adjusted Refusal Speed. C. SETOS. D. All the above.: Answer: D
When flying in gusty winds, increase which of the following speed by half the gust factor? A. Final turn. B. Final approach. C. Touchdown. D. All of the above. E. B and C: Answer: E
After the gear is lowered from the back seat, what must the front seat pilot do? A. Nothing special. B. Physically check the handle down. C. Visually check the handle down.: Answer: B
Extreme CAUTION must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above 120 KIAS as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize. If tire skids are detected, immediately release both brakes and cautiously reapply. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Extreme nose high aerobraking when crossing raised arresting cables may result in damage to the _____. A. afterburner ejectors B. main tires C. main gear doors: Answer: A
After selecting RAM DUMP, you may have to wait _____ for the pressure to equalize. A. several seconds. B. several minutes. C. 5 minutes.: Answer: A
Allow _____ seconds for landing-taxi light retraction and (or) closure of ram dump door prior to engine shutdown. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20: Answer: C
The canopy seals will remain inflated if the engines are shutdown with _____, making the canopies more difficult to open. A. both canopies locked B. either canopy locked C. the front canopy locked: Answer: A
When using the canopy breaker tool, the curved edge of the blade must be _____. This will allow glancing blows against the canopy to deflect away from you. A. toward you B. away from you C. either A or B: Answer: A
Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway): A. immediately shut down the affected engine. B. immediately shut down both engines. C. leave both engines running to ensure downside hydraulic pressure.: Answer: B
Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above _____ . A. 100 KCAS B. MACS C. NACS D. 120 KCAS: Answer: A
When MA-1A barrier engagement is imminent, attempt to: A. engage it perpendicular, in a three-point attitude, and if possible, in the center. B. brake through engagement. C. lower the speedbrake to catch the barrier. D. A and B: Answer: A
Flaps should not be repositioned during a high speed abort until the aircraft slows below no flap final approach speed. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Extreme caution must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above _____ KCAS as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize. A. 100 B. 110 C. 120 D. 130: Answer: C
MA-1A barrier engagement is unlikely with the: A. WSSP installed. B. speedbrake open. C. A or B: Answer: C
Best acceleration during a single-engine takeoff occurs with the aircraft: A. in the takeoff attitude. B. in a three-point attitude, with the stick at, or slightly aft of, the takeoff trim setting.: Answer: B
During a single engine takeoff, climb should be _______ until the airspeed reaches 190 KCAS and flaps are retracted. A. restricted to only that required to avoid obstacles B. at a 7 degree pitch attitude C. at the maximum climb angle of 10: Answer: A
During a single-engine takeoff, gear door drag is not a factor above _____ KCAS. A. SETOS B. SETOS + 10 C. SETOS + 20: Answer: B
If engine failure occurs after takeoff, it may be necessary to allow the aircraft to settle back to the runway. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Depending on airspeed and altitude it may be necessary for the pilot to leave the throttle of the affected engine at a high power setting until reaching a safe airspeed and/or altitude for ejection. A. True B. False: Answer: A
With the left engine inoperative with windmilling hydraulics, gear retraction, when initiated between SETOS+10 and 190 KIAS, may require up to _____. A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes: Answer: C
If unable to retract the landing gear, best single-engine level flight/climb capability is obtained at _____ with 60% flaps or at _____ with the flaps up. A. SETOS, 220 KIAS B. SETOS + 10, 200 KIAS C. SETOS + 10, 240 KIAS D. 190 KIAS,: Answer: D
During single-engine takeoff, the flap indicator should be checked to ensure flaps are within 60% range after the flaps are set at 60 %. A. True B. False: Answer: A
The effects of a tire failure are most pronounced at heavy gross weights and speeds below _____ KIAS. A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120: Answer: B
You experience gear retraction failure; after placing the landing gear lever down and a safe gear down indication is obtained, do not retract or recycle the gear unless a greater emergency exists. A. True B. False: Answer: A
_____ should be attempted immediately upon detection of dual engine flameout at low altitudes, if time permits. A. Ejection B. Normal Restart C. Alternate Airstart: Answer: C
Do not crossfeed if: A. a fuel quantity indicator is inoperative. B. an engine has seized. C. a generator has failed with good crossover. D. all the above.: Answer: A
Do not delay ejection by attempting airstarts at low altitude if below the optimum airstart airspeed and below _____ feet AGL. A. 1500 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 3000: Answer: B
If dual engine failure occurs, attempt to restart the _____ engine first. A. left B. right: Answer: B
RPM hangup during an airstart may be eliminated by _____ airspeed. A. increasing B. decreasing: Answer: A
If it appears that a boost pump has failed and flight below 25,000 feet is impractical: A. flight can be continued above 25,000 feet at reduced power settings. B. crossfeed may be used to ensure boost pump pressure if a reduced power setting is: Answer: D
With dual engine failure, the battery switch is not required to be ON to provide ignition if windmilling rpm is available. A. True. B. False.: Answer: B
If you suspect engine damage during a compressor stall, you should: A. advance the throttle above idle only if required. B. never advance the throttle above idle. C. advance the throttle cautiously above 80% to determine the maximum usable: Answer: A
After retarding the right throttle to idle for a fire light, the fire light immediately goes out. When you test the fire warning system, the right fire light does not illuminate. You should: A. leave the right engine in idle, unless you have other i: Answer: B
When a fire light is preceded or accompanied by a pop, bang or thump, it usually indicates a serious engine malfunction and (or) fire. Consideration should be given to: A. increasing airspeed. B. shutting down the engine. C. ejecting.: Answer: B
Delaying placing the throttle to off after a fire warning light illuminates could result in possible loss of _____ from fire damage. A. oil pressure B. generator failure with no crossover C. flight control system D. all navigational e: Answer: C
If the engine cannot be shut down with the throttle, the _____ switch (affected engine) should be closed. A. boost pump B. fuel shutoff C. crossfeed D. generator: Answer: B
Restarting an engine after the fire light is extinguished should be accomplished only during a heavyweight situation. A. True B. False: Answer: B
With boost pumps inoperative, engine flameout may occur if above 25,000 feet. A. True B. False: Answer: A
If smoke and fumes are encountered in the cockpit, select Oxygen - 100%. If odors persist, use of emergency oxygen bottle should be considered. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air conditioning system may indicate air conditioner turbine failure. You should _____. A. select oxygen - 100% B. descend below FL250 C. select RAM DUMP D. all of the above E: Answer: D
If either canopy is lost in flight, immediately slow to _____ KIAS or less to minimize turbulence and noise. A. 200 B. 250 C. 275 D. 300: Answer: D
After losing a canopy, the minimum drag airspeed is approximately _____ KIAS. A. 200 B. 225 C. 250 D. 275: Answer: B
The best glide speed with 1000 LBS of fuel remaining is: A. 230 KIAS. B. 240 KIAS. C. 250 KIAS. D. 270 KIAS.: Answer: B
To obtain the approximate maximum glide distance in nautical miles, multiply the altitude in thousands of feet by _____. A. 1.3 B. 1.5 C. 1.6 D. 2.0: Answer: C
If oxygen system contamination is suspected, consideration should be given to disconnecting the aircraft oxygen hose before activating the emergency oxygen cylinder. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Simultaneous failure of the engine RPM and oil pump (oil pressure zero) may be an indication of: A. Airframe mounted gearbox failure. B. Left generator failure without crossover. C. Right generator failure without crossover. D. Oil pu: Answer: D
If the operating engine requires shutdown, the previously shutdown engine for an oil system malfunction may be restarted. A. True B. False: Answer: A
The minimum altitude recommended for bailout in a controlled situation is _____ feet AGL. A. 1500 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 3000: Answer: B
Under uncontrollable conditions, eject at a minimum of _______ feet AGL. A. 2000 B. 8000 C. 10,000 D. 15,000: Answer: D
During ejection assume the proper body position by _____, and feet held back against seat. A. sitting erect B. head firmly against headrest C. a only D. b only E. a and b: Answer: E
If you notice a fuel low pressure light and find that the boost pump circuit breakers are popped: A. reset the circuit breakers. B. turn off the associated boost pump, then reset the circuit breakers. C. turn the crossfeed on, then reset t: Answer: B
If _____ power is lost with the gear extended, the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the runway. A. DC B. AC C. a and b: Answer: A
Simultaneous illumination of the generator and hydraulic caution lights for the same engine may indicate a gearbox failure. This can be confirmed by checking the appropriate _____ indicator. A. oil pressure B. hydraulic pressure C. nozzle: Answer: B
If complete DC failure occurs with the landing gear extended: A. downside hydraulic pressure will be lost. B. pull the alternate gear extension handle to ensure the gear are down. C. the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the: Answer: D
Hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine will allow control of the aircraft for landing. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Pilots should refrain from resetting the generator _______ due to the danger of generator burning. A. more than once B. more than twice C. more than once every 10 minutes D. if the engine cannot be adjusted to the opposite side of the: Answer: A
If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted: A. land with all gear up. B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway. C. the flight control hydraulic system backs up all the utility driven systems.: Answer: B
If the engine had previously been shut down due to a hydraulic over temperature, and the caution light as gone out, you can restart the engine if necessary. A. True B. False: Answer: A
With dual hydraulic system failure: A. eject. B. hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine is sufficient to control the aircraft for landing. C. land as soon as conditions permit. D. b and c.: Answer: A
If one hydraulic system reads zero, hydraulic systems transfer may occur. In this case, flight time could be limited to only _______ minutes. A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 45: Answer: C
If damage to the flaps or flap actuating mechanism (other than flap-slab interconnect) is known or suspected, do not reposition flaps. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Touchdowns as high as _______ knots are possible. A. 180 B. 200 C. 220 D. 240: Answer: B
Due to engine oil supply and pressure requirements zero-G flight is restricted to ____ seconds and negative-G flight (any attitude) to ____ seconds. A. 10/60 B. 20/30 C. 10/30 D. 20/60: Answer: C
If interconnect cable failure occurs on an aircraft without the locking device after flaps are down 60 % or more, a sudden pitch-up will occur and the pilot must: A. recover instantaneously. B. take corrective action within three seconds to ens: Answer: B
During an abrupt pitch-up due to interconnect system failure (nonlocking), the pilot must take corrective action within ___ second(s) to ensure recovery without loss of altitude. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4: Answer: C
If you suspect brake fluid venting overboard, pump the brakes in flight to ensure you will have pressure after landing. A. True B. False: Answer: B
During single-engine landing, at high density altitude or high gross weights, selecting full flaps in the flare, an immediate touchdown and premature landing may occur. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Compared to a normal landing, a no-flap landing may increase the landing distance by: A. 1,000 feet. B. 2,000 feet. C. 50%. D. double.: Answer: D
If you have your nose gear up and one main gear extended, this is a landable configuration. A. True B. False: Answer: B
If a main landing gear fails to extend to the locked position due to the main landing gear sidebrace pin backing out: A. repeat extension attempts may result in an unlandable configuration. B. repeat extension attempts will result in a landable: Answer: A
After landing with all gear up, the speedbrake may grind down beyond the actuator attach point and cause the nose to suddenly_______. A. pitch up B. yaw C. drop D. collapse: Answer: C
If you suspect the right brake system has failed, with no other directional control problems, plan to land in (on) the _____ of the runway. A. right side. B. left side. C. center.: Answer: C
Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air-conditioning system may indicate failure of the _______. A. air conditioner turbine B. right/left airframe mounted gearbox C. right/left generator D. right/left oil pump shaft: Answer: A
Maximum range occurs at _____ AOA and maximum endurance occurs at _____ AOA. A. .18, .3 B. .3, .4 C. .2, .6 D. .24, .4: Answer: A
Do not exceed _____ KIAS with the landing gear extended and/or landing gear doors open. A. 190 B. 220 C. 240 D. 250: Answer: C
An overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunion may occur if the gear is: A. extended with greater than 30 degrees of bank. B. extended/retracted with greater than 45 degrees of bank. C. extended at greater than 1.5 Gs.: Answer: D
Do not exceed _______ KIAS with the nosewheel steering engaged. A. 45 B. 65 C. 85 D. 105: Answer: B
Do not exceed _______ KIAS while taxiing with the canopies open. A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100: Answer: B
The G limits with 3000 LBS of fuel remaining are: A. -2.4, +5.9, and +4.3 asymmetric B. -2.6, +6.2, and +4.5 asymmetric C. -2.7, + 6.6, and +4.7 asymmetric D. -2.9, + 7.2, and +5.1 asymmetric: Answer: A
The G-limits with 2000 LBS of fuel remaining are: A. -2.9, +7.2, and +5.1 asymmetric. B. -2.8, +6.9, and +4.9 asymmetric C. -3.0, +7.0, and +4.7 asymmetric. D. -2.6, +6.5, and +4.7 asymmetric.: Answer: D
Vertical stalls are prohibited only during solo flights. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Spins may be intentionally entered when flying dual with a qualified T-38 spin pilot. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Maximum allowable transient RPM is _______%. A. 100 B. 104 C. 105 D. 107: Answer: D
Total fluctuations in EGT of _____ degrees are acceptable if the average EGT is between _____ and _____ degrees C. A. 10 (+/-5), 620, 645 B. 10 (+/-5), 630, 650 C. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 645 D. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 650: Answer: C
At full afterburner, the nozzles should read between _______. A. 0 - 20 B. 5 - 20 C. 20 - 55 D. 50 - 85: Answer: D
Nozzle position at MIL is _______%. A. 0 - 20 B. 20 - 55 C. 50 - 85 D. 50 - 100: Answer: A
During cold weather starts, oil pressure above 55 PSI may be observed. Oil pressure should return to normal within _______ minutes. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12: Answer: A
Following rapid throttle movements, nozzles should stabilize within _______ seconds. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15: Answer: C
A sudden change of _____ psi or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized rpm, follow the oil system malfunction procedures. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15: Answer: C
The maximum allowable airspeed is _____ knots EAS. A. 650 B. 680 C. 710 D. 845: Answer: C
If a high sink rate condition is allowed to develop, recovery may not be possible at traffic pattern altitudes. A. True B. False: Answer: A
If full aileron deflection in the direction of the spin is not maintained, spin recovery may be prolonged or prevented. A. True B. False: Answer: A
Crossfeeding is recommended when fuel differences exceed _____ pounds. A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 175: Answer: C
If normal crossfeed operation is continued until the active system runs dry: A. dual engine flameout will occur. B. gravity feed will supply sufficient fuel from the other fuel system. C. only the corresponding engine will flameout. D: Answer: A
If icing is inadvertently encountered during flight, leave the area of icing condition as soon as possible. A. True B. False: Answer: A
After flight through icing conditions, which result in icing accumulations on the front canopy, a 781 writeup is necessary so that the engines will be inspected for damage. A. True B. False: Answer: A
After ice ingestion, the affected engine should be operated at the _____ possible rpm to make a safe landing. A. highest B. lowest: Answer: B
If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable, you should: A. slow to minimum practical airspeed to lessen rain damage. B. fly at maximum practical airspeed to minimize time in the precipitation. C. set a high power setting with: Answer: A
Flight in moderate precipitation may damage the: A. nose cone. B. vertical stabilizer C. canopies. D. a or b.: Answer: D
The recommended best penetration airspeed if turbulence and thunderstorms are experienced is _______ KIAS. A. 250 B. 280 C. 300 D. 350: Answer: B
The maximum recommended crosswind component for a dry runway is ______ knots, wet runway is _____ knots, and for a runway containing standing water is _____ knots. A. 25, 15, 10 B. 30, 20, 10 C. 25, 20, 15 D. 30, 15, 10: Answer: B
The afterburner fuel control meters fuel as a function of: A. compressor discharge pressure. B. throttle position. C. inlet air temperature. D. A and B. E. all of the above.: Answer: D
Throttle bursts are movements from idle to MIL in ____second(s) or less.: Answer: 1
The 30-second start cycle starts when: A. you press the start button. B. you place the throttle in idle. C. from the first indication of fuel flow.: Answer: A
Moving the throttle from "OFF" to "IDLE" during engine start: A. arms the ignition circuit for 30 seconds, firing the main and afterburner ignitors, and starts fuel flow to the engine. B. energizes the ignition exciter, firi: Answer: B
On solo missions, the rear cockpit standby ADI should be _____. A. caged. B. uncaged: Answer: B
Which of the following component(s) is(are) lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP? A. Anti-G suit. B. Canopy defog. C. Cabin pressurization. D. All the above.: Answer: D
Which of the following components is NOT lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP? A. Anti-G suit B. Canopy defog C. Anti-ice D. Air conditioner: Answer: C
A _____ percent loss in MIL thrust and a _____ percent loss in MAX thrust can be expected with the engine anti-ice switch on. A. 10, 5 B. 20, 12.5 C. 15, 7.5 D. 9, 6.5: Answer: D
After experiencing _____ generator failure with no crossover, the floodlights will not be automatically available and must be adjusted to obtain lighting. A. left B. right C. total: Answer: A
The oxygen low-level light may blink due to sloshing if the system contains less than _____ liters, and normally illuminates when the indicator reads _____ liter(s) or less.: Answers: 3, 1
During normal operations, the oxygen pressure gauge should read _____ to _____ psi.: Answers: 50, 120
The emergency oxygen cylinder should have a minimum pressure of _____ psi. A. 1700 B. 1800 C. 1900 D. 2000: Answer: B
Normal hydraulic pressure is _____ to _____ psi.: Answers: 2850, 3200
Abort engine start if EGT reaches _____ degrees C to preclude exceeding temperature limits.: Answer: 845
The aircraft stall is characterized by airframe buffet and a ______ rather than by a clean nose-down pitch motion. A. high sink rate. B. wing rock. C. nose-up pitch motion. D. all of the above: Answer: A
When experiencing any unrecognizable post stall gyrations, _______ until the aircraft settles into a recognizable maneuver or recovers. A. move the stick abruptly full forward and hold B. move the stick abruptly full aft and hold C. smooth: Answer: C
By specification, gravity feed operation is guaranteed only to ______ feet. A. 6,000. B. 12,000. C. 15,000. D. 25,000.: Answer: A
Without the aid of a boost pump, flameouts have occurred as low as ______ feet. A. 6,000 B. 12,000 C. 15,000 D. 25,000: Answer: C
A fuel low pressure light is a valid indication of boost pump failure only if: A. crossfeed switch is off. B. the corresponding throttle is out of the off position. C. the corresponding fuel shutoff switch is normal. D. all of the abo: Answer: D
Placing either or both fuel shutoff switches at the CLOSED position shuts off fuel flow to either or both engines in approximately _____ second(s) without using the throttles. A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10: Answer: A
Which lights cannot be dimmed using the Warning/Caution/Advisory Light Bright/Dim Switch? A. AOA indexer lights. B. Master caution light. C. Fire warning lights. D. Gear indicators.: Answer: C
In order to dim the caution lights, you must: A. place the console rheostat out of off, and select dim. B. place the floodlight rheostat out of off, and select dim. C. place the instrument light control out of off, and select dim. D.: Answer: C
If the test circuit is inoperative, an illumination of the fire warning light should be ignored as it is not a valid indication of a fire. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Allowing the rudder pedal adjust T-handle to snap back during adjustment may trip or damage pedestal circuit breakers or ILS control and cause the cable to wear excessively. A. True B. False: Answer: A
If one of the flap motors fails as you lower the flaps, you may expect: A. one flap to stop, the other to continue. B. both flaps to stop. C. both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary shaft. D. none of the abo: Answer: C
The audible warning signal is not activated by an unlocked gear door condition. A. True B. False: Answer: A
With the landing gear warning system activated and the aircraft accelerating, the light and tone may not go out until the airspeed reaches approximately _______. A. 210 KIAS B. 220 KIAS C. 240 KIAS D. 250 KIAS: Answer: C
The two main gear lights in the front cockpit and all gear lights in the rear cockpit are illuminated. The nose gear light in the front cockpit is not illuminated. The bulb tests good. This is a landable configuration. A. True B. False: Answer: A
What will be the correct indications after practicing alternate gear extension, with the landing gear lever in the LG UP position? A. Three green, light out in handle, horn sounding. B. Three green, light on in handle, horn sounding. C. Th: Answer: C
If the canopy will not fully close while holding for takeoff, A. it is permissible to taxi back to chocks. B. re-attempt to close the rear canopy first then the front one. C. do not taxi or tow aircraft until cleared by a qualified mainten: Answer: C
If an open canopy has been exposed to jet blast, it should be checked for normal operation . If the canopy will not close: A. taxi back to the chocks and have maintenance inspect the canopy mechanism. B. re-attempt to close the rear canopy firs: Answer: C
Damage and possible loss of canopy may occur if the hood is bunched between the drogue chute housing and canopy and the seat is raised to the near full-up position. A. True B. False: Answer: A
FARâ€™s apply only to civil aircraft operations. A. True B. False: Answer: B
During investigations of violations, do not give aircrew names to the FAA unless specifically approved by the Air Force Representative to the FAA (AFREP). A. True B. False: Answer: A
When an alternate is required and the visibility-only weather criterion is used to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel: A. Need not include the fuel required for an approach at the original destination.: Answer: B
If not operating in the National Airspace System, on an IFR flight plan and into an airport with a functioning control tower, the PIC will close an activated flight plan through FSS or ATC facility by any means of communication available. A. True: Answer: A
A signature by the pilot in command on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means: A. the flight was properly ordered and released. B. current NOTAMs, weather, and other pertinent flight data was obtained. C. the flight will be cond: Answer: E
The "see-and-avoid" concept applies to flights conducted in VMC: A. on VFR flight plans. B. on IFR flight plans. C. both a and b above. D. neither a or b above.: Answer: C
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each will alter its course to the: A. center. B. right. C. left. D. right and down.: Answer: B
If you are overtaking an aircraft and see a possible conflict, you must alter your course to ______. A. the left. B. climb. C. descend. D. the right.: Answer: D
Right-of-way is given to: A. aircraft in distress. B. the aircraft at the lower altitude, when more than one aircraft is approaching to land, has the right of way provided this advantage is not used to cut in front of another aircraft. C.: Answer: D
Clearance to taxi to a runway is clearance to taxi: A. to the first intersecting runway. B. across all intersecting runways and onto the assigned runway. C. to the assigned runway provided additional clearances are received at intersecting: Answer: D
You execute a go-around and request a closed. Tower approves it while you are 2000 feet down the runway. Do you have to wait until the departure end to execute the closed pull-up? A. Yes, unless specifically cleared by the tower. B. No.: Answer: A
According to AFI 11-202 Vol 3, pilots must not operate over congested areas if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within a _____ feet radius of the aircraft. A. 500, 1,000. B. 1,000, 2,000. C. 500,: Answer: B
When the cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet, each occupant of an Air Force aircraft must use supplemental oxygen. A. 10,000. B. 13,000. C. 18,000. D. 25,000.: Answer: A
The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility (ETA+- 1 hour). A. 1,000, 3. B. 1,500, 3. C. 2,500, 3. D. 3,000, 3.: Answer: B
If you deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3 due to an emergency, after flight you must: A. inform your immediate supervisor and commander within 24 hours of the incident. B. make a detailed written record. C. furnish a written report only if traf: Answer: D
If you experience an emergency which results in traffic priority, although no deviation from AFI 11-202 Vol 3 occurs, after flight you must: A. notify immediate supervisor and commander within 30 days. B. do nothing since there was no deviation: Answer: C
Which of the following, when flight planning, must the pilot in command ensure that aircrew members know concerning the appropriate procedures and applicable information for the intended operation: A. NOTAMs. B. Alternatives available if the pi: Answer: E
In addition to the equipment required for IFR flight, flight in IMC requires operational: A. canopy defogging equipment, pitot heat. B. operative pitot heat, anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment. C. canopy defogging, pitot heat, anti-icing: Answer: B
Primary flight instrumentation must provide: A. full-time display of attitude. B. aircraft altitude. C. airspeed information. D. both a and b above. E. all the above.: Answer: E
A change in route or destination not shown on the original flight plan is authorized without refiling provided: A. the change does not involve ADIZ penetration. B. the change is approved by controlling ATC agency for an IFR flight. C. the: Answer: E
While flying in an area with significant glider activity, we have the right of way because of our greater airspeed and maneuverability. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Do not exceed _____ KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed. A. 250. B. 156. C. 300. D. 200.: Answer: A
Which of the following is true regarding clearance authority? A. This is delegated to the person who assumes responsibility for the aircraft. B. Under VFR, the PIC must adhere to the clearance requirements for the class of airspace in which the: Answer: D
Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, until at least 400' AGL above the departure end of the runway, at a safe airspeed, and past departure end of the runway (if visible) unless: A. safety dictates otherwise. B. VMC.: Answer: D
Pilots are allowed to practice emergency procedures when passengers are on board the aircraft. A. True B. False: Answer: B
What is a pilots maximum authorized altitude in an unpressurized aircraft if occupants do not have oxygen? A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 13,000 feet MSL. C. FL 180. D. FL 250.: Answer: B
If occupants do not have oxygen, pilots will not operate an unpressurized aircraft between 10,000 and 13,000 feet MSL for longer than _____ hours.: Answer: 3
If the aircraft loses cabin pressure, the pilot must initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical altitude, preferably below ____ ft., but in no case allow cabin altitude to remain above ____ ft., unless occupants are wearing functional pressure: Answers: 18,000 / 25,000
If flying at 10,000 feet MSL in class E airspace, visibility must be ____ miles in order to be considered VFR.: Answer: 5
Pilots will fly fixed-wing aircraft under VFR when required for mission accomplishment. A. True B. False: Answer: A
You want to fly to Bernie Airfield and it does not have a published approach. You can: A. file VMC to a point that is within 25 NM of the field and pick up an IFR clearance. B. file IFR to a point that is forecasted to be VFR at your time of ar: Answer: E
Temporary (TEMPO) changes in ceilings and visibility at destination: A. are not restrictive for filing purposes, but may require that an alternate be filed. B. are restrictive for filing purposes if they occur within ETA +/- 1 hour. C. are: Answer: A
When flying IFR in the US off airways, maintain at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within _____ NM of the route centerline. A. MOCA B. 1,000, 22 C. 1,000 (2,000 in mountainous terrain), 10 D. 1,000 (2,000 in mountainous te: Answer: D
You have commenced a published approach and are subsequently advised that the weather has deteriorated below published approach minimums. Which of the following is (are) correct? A. The pilot must not deviate from the last ATC clearance before obtai: Answer: E
Pilots must use _____ to determine visibility minimums; _____ may be used if it's not available. For circling approaches, _____ shall be used. A. RVR, PVV, PV B. PV, RVR, RVV C. RVR, PV, PV D. RVV, RVR, PV: Answer: C
Official business conducted on the phone from your quarters is not an interruption of your crew rest. A. True B. False: Answer: B
Flight duty period is from __________ to __________. However, time spent in the completion of duties will not count as crew rest toward the next flight duty period. A. step time to jet / engines shutdown B. report time for official duties / dep: Answer: C
The airfield has been assessed for departure by TERPS personnel and no penetration of the obstacle surfaces exists. An aircraft may depart the field, climb to 400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, turn in any direction, and if a minim: Answer: C
A standard formation is a formation in which the aircraft maintain proximity of no more than _____ NM horizontally and within _____ feet vertically from flight leader.: Answers: 1 / 100
In formation, you notice your wingman holds his/her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. Your wingman moves his/her hand forward and down. He/she is trying to tell you: A. descend to lower altitude. B. he or sh: Answer: A
The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates an __________. A. electrical malfunction. B. oxygen malfunction. C. engine malfunction. D. flight control malfunction.: Answer: C
What is the basic jet airspeed for landing on someone's wing? A. 155. B. 145. C. 150. D. 130.: Answer: D
While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. Your wingman then moves his/her arm up and down rapidly indicating: A. he/she wants to land immediately. B. h: Answer: A
During a formation sortie, lead taps his earphone, then holds up a clenched fist next to his helmet. This means: A. lead is receiver out. B. go channel zero. C. go back to previous frequency. D. go to prebriefed manual frequency.: Answer: D
The formation signal for "attention in the air" is to: A. large wing rock. B. execute a rapid, shallow wing rock. C. execute a series of porpoising maneuvers. D. turn the anti-collision beacon off then on.: Answer: B
During a formation takeoff, preparatory hand signals are not required prior to raising the gear and flaps. A. True. B. False.: Answer: A
If you, as the lead aircraft, see your wingman give you a clenched fist in the top of the canopy, but no fingers are shown, what is the problem? A. The wingman forgot what HEFOE stands for. B. The distressed aircraft has multiple emergencies or: Answer: B
What do the letters H.E.F.O.E. stand for? A. Hydraulic, engine, fuel, oxygen, electrical. B. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oil, engine. C. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oxygen, engine. D. None of the above.: Answer: C
During a formation sortie, lead uses rudder to fishtail the aircraft. This is the signal for: A. go afterburner. B. loosen the formation. C. lead is pushing up the power. D. lead is initiating a climb..: Answer: B
Regarding cockpit signals for multi-crew aircraft: Voice is the primary method of communication between the pilot and other crew members. A. True. B. False.: Answer: A
During a formation sortie, lead displays a clenched fist and moves it outboard. This is the signal for: A. go afterburner. B. loosen the formation. C. lead is pushing up the power. D. lead is initiating a climb.: Answer: A
The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates a (n) . A. oil system malfunction. B. hydraulic malfunction. C. electrical malfunction. D. engine malfunction.: Answer: D
Absence of an ILS identifier: A. is acceptable as long as no OFF flags are visible. B. indicates an unreliable signal. C. is normal for an ILS. D. means that you may fly only to localizer minimums.: Answer: B
Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored. A. T B. F: Answer: A
Turning in the shorter direction to place the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line and centering the CDI with a TO indication, then maintaining that course to the station describes: A. homing. B. intercepting a course outbound. C. p: Answer: C
Groundspeed checks made below ____ feet are accurate at any distance from the DME station. A. 500. B. 1,000. C. 3,000. D. 5,000.: Answer: D
As a technique, when correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ for each 1/2 mile outside the arc. A. 10°, 5°. B. 10°, 15°. C.: Answer: C
When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet. A. 50. B. 75. C. 100. D. 150.: Answer: B
Air Force pilots flying civil departure procedures must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least _____ feet AGL and climb at a rate of at least _____ feet per NM to be assured of obstacle clearance. A. 35, 150. B. 35, 200. C.: Answer: B
When flying a departure procedure, we must climb on runway heading until _____ feet above airport elevation, unless otherwise instructed. A. 100. B. 400. C. 500.: Answer: B
If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with an incompatible missed approach, alternate missed approach/departure instructions must be coordinated with ATC before ___. A. accepting the approach clearance. B. FAF. C. MAP.: Answer: A
Minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude which provides at least _____ feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based. A. 1000. B. 1,000 feet, 2,000 f: Answer: A
Minimum sector altitude provides _____ feet of obstacle clearance within _____ NM of the facility. A. 1,000, 50. B. 1,000, 25. C. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 25. D. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 5: Answer: B
Touchdown zone elevation is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing runway. A. 1,500. B. 2,000. C. 2,500. D. 3,000.: Answer: D
On multifacility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the _____ published. A. highest DH. B. lowest DH. C. highest MDA. D. the lowest MDA.: Answer: D
When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees. A. 2. B. 4. C. 5. D. 8.: Answer: B
While flying a SID, the controller vectors you off the SID. You now can assume the entire SID is canceled unless told to expect to resume SID. A. T B. F: Answer: A
Which is a correct standard holding pattern? A. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet. B. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet. C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet. D: Answer: C
ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When the aircraft is _____ minutes or less from a clearance limit fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a: Answer: B
Which of the following concerning holding is correct? A. You are considered to be established in the holding pattern upon initial passage of the holding fix. B. You are considered to be in the holding pattern when outbound abeam the fix. C: Answer: A
If you are established in a holding pattern that does not have a published holding or minimum IAF altitude, and you are cleared for the approach: A. maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach. B. descend: Answer: A
During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should: A. climb to that altitude. B. maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a: Answer: B
If during a descent ATC advises you that radar contact is lost while in IFR conditions and there is a delay in receiving new instructions, what should you do? A. Ask the controller for a new clearance. B. You are cleared to fly any published ap: Answer: D
When clearance for an approach is issued; ATC expects an immediate turn in the shortest direction to intercept the approach course upon reaching the IAF. A. T B. F: Answer: A
When cleared for an approach, proceed to IAF, then turn _____ to intercept the approach course. A. in the shortest direction. B. left. C. right. D. in the longest direction.: Answer: A

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Number of cards 249