Work II
Terms
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- The primary power for the KG-84C is _________.
- 115VAC 400hz
- IAW NATOPS, before using the Pilot's or Co-Pilot's escape strap, you should check _____________________.
- that the green band is even with the window sill
- The RT rack MDF's recieve 28vdc power from which of the following:
- P67-3 panel
- The Low Range Radio Altimeter is powered whenever power is applied to the aircraft.
- False
- Where is the intake hazard area on the E-6B at take off rated thrust (TRT)?
- an arc 50 ft out in front of the engine around to 6 ft back behind the inlet
- When the Pilot's Instrument Source Select Switch is in the ALTN position, the selected data sources are FMCS 2, IRS 3 and DAC 1 ALTN.
- False
- What is the frequency range of the SSPA?
- 17.00 khz to 59.99 khz
- The ADF system consists of two ADF receivers, two loop antennas, one sense antenna, and two ADF control panels.
- FALSE
- With the weather radar operate switch in the ______ position the radar can be damaged if the ANT STAB switch is set to ON and the selected attitude source is OFF.
- WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, BCN
- Power is applied to the UHF Guard Receiver by the _______.
- V/UHF #1 mode switch
- Administer oxygen to personnel overcome by smoke/fumes, after removing them from the scene of the fire.
- True
- The SIMOP Filter for the HF-3 System is located in RT Cabinet Bay _______.
- 2
- The APU ground fire switch, light and horn are located ___________________.
- in the starboard wheel well
- How many stations in Comm Central can communicate via the flight deck UHFs?
- 5
- The VOL control on the ARC-190 control head is inoperative.
- False
- Identify the sequence of events for ground evacuation using the forward or aft main door and escape slide slide_____________.
- Open door, pull inflation handle, jump clear of door sill.
- Which radar setting is used for short or medium range terrain mapping at altitudes above 500 ft AGL.
- MAP 1
- When deploying the liferafts, if possible deploy them forward of the wings.
- True
- The pilot and copilot sliding windows are two of the primary exits in a ditching situation.
- False
- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., which may result in personal injury or death, if not carefully observed or followed, is the NATOPS definition of a __________.
- WARNING
- The radar hazard area for personnel is within a _____ foot radius in a _____ degree arc off the nose of the aircraft.
- 60 / 240
- Secure HF transmissions can be accomplished utilizing which HF radios?
- 3, 4 & 5
- With the Split System Breaker OPEN, which generators supply power to the Mission Equipment SYNC BUS?
- 2,4,6,7 & 8
- The APU inlet and exhuast hazard area extends for _______ ft from the aircraft.
- 25
- The following ditching procedures are for Station 21(ACOM) : Perform Checklist. After ditching: Remove starboard overwing hatch. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. Inflate life vest. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitting. Deploy and
- True
- Displayed TACAN bearings are still reliable if all three RMIs are displaying TACAN data.
- Which Comm Central positions have access to Conf 1 on the ICS?
- ALL
- Which position on the UHF Receive Antenna Control will manually select UHF SATCOM 10 antenna?
- Overhead
- To avoid shocking personnel working on the aircraft external skin surfaces, HF radio transmissions are not allowed while on the ground.
- False
- With the Split System breaker OPEN, aircraft generators ________ are normally used for the AVE SYNC bus.
- 1,3 and 5
- The FMCS CDU's are cooled by _______.
- Draw Thru Cooling
- The UHF C3 antenna is hazardous to personnel within a _____ foot radius if the C3 HPA PA is disabled, and within a _____ foot radius if the C3 HPA is enabled.
- 1 / 17
- The Preselect Bandpass Filter for the HF 5 system is located in the RT Cabinet, Bay _____.
- 1
- 28VDC DISTR 1 PNL recieves its power from ___________.
- P67-3 circuit breaker panel
- How many portable fire extinguishers are on the E-6B?
- 6
- The E-6B has ________ crash axes onboard.
- 5
- If an escape slide fails to inflate it can not be used for an escape exit.
- False
- The inflation of the liferafts takes less than_____seconds in all enviroments.
- 10
- What is the Bold Face for Sudden Loss of Cabin Pressurization?
- OXYGEN- ON (ALL)
- Where are the circuit breakers for the IRS systems located?
- P5 & P6 panels
- The word _______ is used in the NATOPS to indicate that application of a procedure is recommended.
- SHOULD
- An operating procedure, practice or condition, which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed is the NATOPS definition of a:
- CAUTION
- Pressure should indicate between _____ and _____ Oxygen Regulators.
- 290 / 430
- The 30M setting on the portable oxygen bottle regulator is used when cabin altitude is __________ feet.
- 30,000 to 42,000 ft
- The E-6B IFF, (AIMS) system mode _____ provides for CRYPTO secure indentification.
- 4
- The forward main door and escape slide and the aft main door and escape slide are not the primary exits for a ground evacuation.
- False
- Where is the intake hazard area on the E-6B at idle thrust?
- An arc 25 feet out in front of the engine around to 5 feet back down the nacelle.
- IAW NATOPS, a "WARNING' is:
- none of the above
- How many portable emergency exit lights are on the E-6B?
- 9
- The E-6B has _____ liferafts on board which have a normal-rated capacity of _____ people.
- 3 / 10
- IAW NATOPS, do not discharge the Portable Halon Fire Extinguisher unless flames are visible.
- True
- Of the _____ modes of the IFF system available on the E-6B, _____ provides altitude information.
- 5 / Mode 3/A
- UHF 12 and 13 receive antennas are both located in the port wingpod.
- False
- The word ________ is used in the NATOPS to indicate that application of a procedure is mandatory.
- SHALL
- The normal rated capacity of each liferaft is _______ persons with an overload capacity of ______ persons.
- 10/15
- HF-5 radio uses which aircraft antenna?
- Starboard wing probe
- The MISC CONT circuit breaker supplies power to all but which of the following?
- 60 HZ Power Control Panel
- Where is the closest oxygen refill station to Comm Central Seat one?
- The four positions on the portable oxygen bottle selector knob are NORM, __________
- 42M, 45M, EMER
- How many comm central stations can communicate on the Flight deck VHF/UHF radios?
- 4
- Which of the following frequencies is an ILS frquency, and would be used to perform an self-test of the VHF NAV system.
- 109.20
- Each UHF C3 radio is capable of storing _______ transmit and _______ receive presets stored in non-volatile memory.
- 20/20
- Which HF radio(s) may be utilized for secure voice (ANDVT/KYV-5) transmissions?
- HF-3,4, & 5
- Fill the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle before the pressure drops below 50 psi. If the pressure drops below 50 psi, recharge bottles immediately or purge bottle before filling.
- True
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Remain at assigned station; assist as directed.
- 8, 10, 6
- There are _______ MB-1 portable oxygen bottles on the E-6B aircraft.
- 6
- The UHF C3 system has ________ receive antennas and ________ high power transmit antennas.
- 3-Feb
- The Network Bays are located on the _______ side of the SSPA/C.
- starboard
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Release No. 2 liferaft and survival kit. Attach retaining line (located in inflation handle pocket) to assist handle on side of starboard overwing hatc
- No. 20
- The ARN-118 Tacan system aboard the E-6 has ______ total selectable channels (counting both X and Y channel modes).
- 252
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Release No. 1 liferaft and survival kit. Attach retaining line (located in inflation handle pocket) to assist handle on side of port overwing hatch. 2.
- No. 17
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station regulator, proceed to forward lower compartment access hatch. Obtain portable oxygen bottle and fire extinguisher from next to access hatch. When the monitor
- No. 9
- What is the maximum cabin temperature for the startup and continuous ground operation of all avionics cooled by the Draw-Through-Cooling System?
- 90 deg. F
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station regulator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from the port side aft comm central bulkhead. Inspect aft communications central. Return to station and report to
- No. 20
- What is the radar area of possible fuel ignition _____________ and electro-explosive device detonation______________.
- 300-foot radius / 100-foot radius
- Personnel in forward facing seats take bracing position with seatbelt fastened, back against backrest, feet flat on floor, and arms braced with hands on knees.
- True
- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed is __________.
- Warning
- Operation of the SSPA/C can be accomplished from ________ ACHs.
- 2
- Which key on the MILSTAR keyboard confirms that a correct entry has been made?
- VERIFY
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Remove port overwing hatch. 2. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitting.
- No. 18
- __________ is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.
- Should
- Personnel in aft facing seats take bracing position with seatbelt fastened, back against backrest, feet flat on floor, and arms braced with hands on knees.
- True
- The two ______, located at ACOM positon 21 and ACO, provide operator interface to the DAISS for administrative and maintenance functions.
- SDUs
- The SSPA/C matches the impedance of the amplifier to the impedance of the ________.
- RF radiating STWA
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Obtain portable liferaft from crew rest area. Proceed to port overwing hatch. 2. Pass liferaft through overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life
- No. 9
- The UHF-DF system uses which radio(s)?
- V/UHF #1 only
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: "Take oxygen mask from station requlator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from port side forward comm central bulkhead. Inspect forward comm central area, including battlestaff posit
- No. 17
- Allow each TCG to warm up ________ before applying power to the SDSU.
- 5 minutes
- The APU inlet and exhuast hazard area extends _____ ft from the aircraft.
- 25
- The Forced Air Cooling system control panel is located on the flight engineer's panel.
- True
- Remove personnel overcome by smoke/fumes from scene of fire before administering oxygen. Keep oxygen bottles away from scene of fire.
- True
- The Secondary ditching exits are _______________.
- forward and aft main doors.'pilot and co-pilot sliding windows.'bailout door.
- How many subscriber station units (SSUs) make up the Digital Airborne Intercommunications and Switching Set (DAISS)?
- 10
- In the MILSTAR system, all processing that does not require KG-33, KGV-11, KYV-5 or KG-84 cryptography is done by the _____.
- TAC
- Which antenna is connected in line with the link monitor step attenuator?
- UHF 10 MILSTAR
- With the INSTR SOURCE SEL switch set to ALT, symbol generator 1 receives inputs from:
- IRU 3 and FMCU 2.
- Which indicator on the ANDVT Call box when illuminated, indicates user may talk?
- CTS
- The APU ground fire switch, light and horn are located __________________.
- in the starboard wheel well
- There are ______ authorized ditching stations are on the E-6B aircraft.
- 23
- The 42M setting on the portable oxygen bottle regulator is used when cabin altitude is ____ feet.
- 42,000 to 45,000
- The UHF SATCOM and UHF C3 antennas are hazardous to personnel within a _____ foot radius when the transmitting power amplifier is disabled and within a _____ foot radious when the transmitting power amplifier is enabled.
- 1 / 17
- What is the Mission Computer System's (MCS) main operator interface device?
- Display/keyboard unit (DKU)
- When performing the oxygen preflight, which of the following DOES NOT apply?
- Insure all ICS connections are disconnected.
- What station performs the following "Ditching" duties: Perform checklist: After Ditching: 1. Take first aid kit and one emergency water bottle from starboard overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. Board No. 2 liferaft.
- No. 6
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station requlator and obtain portable oxygen bottle and fire extinguisher from the port side aft comm central bulkhead. Beginning at the starboard R/T bays, inspect i
- No. 21
- On the Weather Radar, prior to operating with the Antenna Stab switch on, the radar must have warmed up for at leat 10 minutes.
- False
- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that is essential to emphasize is a __________.
- Note
- What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties:Take oxygen mask from station regulator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from port side forward comm central bulkhead. Proceed to the forward lower compartment access hatch. Monitor person
- No. 18
- What is the radar hazard area to personnel?
- 60-foot radius
- What will the indication be if the FREQ thumbwheels on the ARC-190 control are set to a frequency below 2 MHz?
- CONT FAULT only
- What are the valid preset conference numbers for DAISS?
- 1 to 20
- 28 vdc to the SSPA/C is supplied by the ________ circuit breaker located on the __________ panel.
- VLF PWR AMP / P67-3
- On the DAISS special dialing features, the access code that is used to insert a security device in call on hold would be __________.
- #6XXX
- Which MILSTAR processor provides BLACK message processing?
- TAC
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist: After ditching: 1. Remove starboard overwing hatch. 2. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitt
- No. 21
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties:Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Proceed to starboard overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. Board No. 2 liferaft.
- No. 7
- Three remotely controlled VLF receivers accept MSK, FSK, and CW FSK signals in the ________ range from the preamp/filter.
- 14 to 59.99 kHz
- The facsimile (FAX) machine is hardwired to which STU-III/R?
- 6
- Each remote control unit (RCU) provides for the complete control of ______ STU-III/R secure telephone units.
- 2
- Pressure should indicate between ______ & ______ psi on the oxygen regulator.
- 290 - 430
- If an accidental entry into the MILSTAR antenna radiation hazard area occurs, it does not result in injury if exposure is limited to _______ minutes maximum.
- 6
- The Baseband Processor (BBP) NVRAM stores the MILSTAR terminal image.
- FALSE
- Valid preset conference numbers fall in the range ________.
- 1 to 20
- The UHF-DF system uses a seperate UHF-DF antenna located on the bottom centerline of the aircraft.
- True
- During flight, with engine #4 shut down, the SSB open and the AGB closed, what generators are now powering the ME SYNC Bus? the AGB closed, what generators are now powering the ME SYNC Bus?
- 2, 4, 5, & 6
- Each of the power transformers supply two ______ within the SSPA/C.
- high voltage power supplies (HVPS)
- The DAISS can be configured for a maximum of _____ fifteen member preset conferences and a maximum of _____ five member preset conferences.
- 5/15
- What are the MUX channel SDNs of Transmultiplexer one (1) ?
- 201 - 215
- The A1-E6AAB-NFM-000 manual contains information on all aircraft systems, performance data, and operating procedures.
- True
- What is the interface which links the TX and RX baseband signals between the UHF C3 modems and their designated DAISS multiplexers?
- Baseband Control Assembly
- _____________ SDNs are a three digit numbers starting with 40 or 41, not ending in zero.
- Hunt Group
- When performing a BIT on the ESM system, the letter F appearing on the display screen indicates that the system is working Fine.
- False
- There are _______ PAMs contained in the SSPA/C.
- 32
- The ______ stores the MILSTAR terminal image in its internal memory.
- TSM
- The antenna for the Rendezvous Radar Beacon is located on the bottom of the aircraft.
- True
- Which ALCS component is hardwired to the single output of the 70 MHz select switch?
- Demodulator/Decoder
- What two faults will cause illumination of the CPLR FAULT indicator on the ARC-190 control panel?
- The SIMOP and the COUPLER.
- The "Battle Short" switch restores primary power to the _____________ regardless of the draw-through cooling status.
- VERDIN TX terminal
- How many UHF C3 radio(s) may be connected to the ALCS at one time using the UHF C3 mode select panel?
- 1
- What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Take classified data boxes to starboard overwing hatch, pass boxes through hatch, exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. 3. Ensure disposition of data b
- No. 19
- There are _______ speakers on the aircraft utilized for the public address system.
- 17
- The primary exits for ground evacuation are the Forward and Aft main crew doors and the bailout door.
- False
- _____________ is used only to indicate futurity, never to indicate any degree of requirements for application of a procedure.
- Will
- What cryptographic device provides for the loading of the following MILSTAR TRANSEC keys: terminal unique, uplink and downlink, and the cover key?
- KGV-11A
- What is the power output (in watts) of the ARC-190 transceivers?
- 400
- To dial a preset conference, _________ should be dialed on your SSU.
- #31XX (XX = 01-20, preset conference number assigned on SDU)
- What is the frequency range of the VOSAT power amplifier?
- 225 - 400 MHz
- What is the O'scope warm up period?
- 20 minutes.
- The crewmember discovering fire, smoke, or fumes in the aircraft shall ___________________.
- notify the flight station.
- There are _________ emergency exits that may be used for ground evacuation.
- seven
- What does a satellite survival kit contain?
- first-aid supplies, food packets, other survival items, 'various day/night signaling devices, 'an emergency transmitter, a radio
- Immediately evacuate the aircraft ________________________.
- upon command of the pilot.
- If evacuating after aborted takeoff or heavyweight landing, depart directly forward or aft of aircraft to avoid possible tire/wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt.
- True
- The Standards Distribution and Switching Unit (SDSU) provides 5 MHz and 1 PPM output to the ____________, and TOD output to the two ________.
- VLF subsystem/TCGs.
- All personnel in the aft compartment during flight shall wear ear protection.
- False
- The full face oxygen masks are rated for use to _________ feet altitude.In an emergency, they can be used up to _______ feet altitude.
- 40,000/50,000
- Placing the IRS mode select switch from OFF to NAV, and entering the current position, will initiate a _______ alignment.
- 5 minute
- The VLF Secure Transmit TSEC is selectable at the VERDIN Control Unit via the KEY GEN SELECT switch. Key generator 1 is _________. Key generator 2 is ________.
- TSEC 6/TSEC 5
- Voice capabilities of the UHF C3 radio subsystem may be accessed through the DAISS or ICS?
- FALSE
- The Mode Select Switch on the VLF receiver control head, when switched to ______ routes the receiver output to the DC jackfield.
- FSK
- What is the power requirement for the KG-84C?
- 115V, 400Hz
- The C3 radio subsystem provides both amplitude modulation and frequency modulation in the ___________ range.
- 225.000 MHz to 399.975 MHz
- The maximum operating cabin pressure altitude for the VLF PA is:
- 10,000
- The MUX channel SDNs (1-15) for the Transmultiplexer two (MUX 2) are ________________.
- 216 - 230
- How many speed dial number selections may be entered into DAISS?
- 100
- During postflight, the HF radio mode select switches shall be set to AM.
- True
- The inflation of a liferaft takes less than ______ seconds in all enviroments.
- 10
- There are _______ portable emergency exit lights are on the E-6B.
- 8
- Ear protection required within ________ foot radius of any engine at idle including the APU and _______ foot radius of any engine at takeoff rated thrust.
- 60 / 150
- When using the Pilots or Co-Pilots escape strap, you should check ____________________.
- that the green band on the strap is at the window sill
- Escape slides are provided for the forward and aft main doors and the bailout door.
- True
- When first powering up the HF radios, you get a Control Fault, the most probable cause is:
- The frequency selection is below 2.0000 Mhz.'Control head has mode "A" selected.
- The heading information displayed by the RMI's is magnetic heading only.
- True
- Escape slides can be detached from door and used as liferafts if liferafts fail to inflate.
- True
- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that may result in damage to equipment is not carefully observed or followed is a ______________.
- Caution
- What are the HF radio hazard areas for personnel?
- headsets connected to external jacks'contact with external aircraft skin surface'10 feet from any point on pod or antenna wire
- Sound attenuators (mickey mouse ears) can reduce noise by an additional ____ to ____ dB, if used with ear plugs.
- 10 / 15
- The bailout door escape slide weighs _______ pounds.
- 43
- The E-6B aircraft has ______ fire extinguishers.
- 8
- The four positions on the portable oxygen bottle altitude selector knob are NORM, _____, _____, & _____.
- 30M, 42M, EMER
- What COMSEC device is used for EHF transmission/reception and operates in conjunction with the BBP?
- KG-84/A
- The power output from the HF-1 radio can only be measured from the HF Power Monitor Panel at Comm Central Seat 4.
- False
- The operating range of the ARN-118 TACAN is ______ miles depending on the line of sight range.
- 390
- Which MILSTAR processor provides for RED message processing?
- BBP
- Mode 3/A of the IFF (AIMS) system is used for:
- position identification for air traffic control.
- The link monitor filter select panel provides ________ or _______ output from the UHF C3 subsystem.
- filtered,nonfiltered
- The RED side of the BBP contains the equipment that handles unencrypted infromation and unclassified control signals.
- False
- What is the BOLDFACE for FIRE, SMOKE, OR FUMES IN AIRCRAFT INTERIOR?
- Firebill - Activated (P) Oxygen - As Required (ALL)
- What station performs the following Fire Bill duties: Perform checklist; organize refill and replacement of portable oxygen bottles if necessary. Direct fire fighting effort when source is located. Keep pilot informed.
- No. 19
- _____________ is used only when application of a procedure is optional.
- May