Pharm Test 5
Terms
undefined, object
copy deck
- 1. You should avoid rapid IV infusion of cimetidine (Tagamet) because it can cause:
- a. confusion
- 2. Side effects related to cimetidine therapy include:
- a. abdominal pain and diarrhea
- 3. Mr. S, who receives aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) via nasogastric tube every 4 hours, should be observed for:
- a. constipation
- 4. The following is a contraindication for the use of metoclopramide (Reglan):
- a. ParkinsonÂ’s Disease
- 5. Your client, with peptic ulcer disease, is started on scralfate (Carafate). A potential nursing diagnosis related to this medication is:
- a. alteration I bowel elimination: constipation
- 6. For the best effectiveness, you should administer scralfate (Carafate) at the following time:
- a. 1 hour before meals
- 7. Your client will receive ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg PO at bedtime. Prior to administration, you should inform the client that common side effects related to this medication are:
- a. headache
- 8. Ranitidine (Zantac) should be cautiously administered to individuals with evidence of:
- a. renal disease
- 10. A client who is taking a senna preparation (Senokot) calls you because she has noticed that her urine is a deep red and she thinks she is bleeding. Your best response would be:
- a. “The medication you are taking can color the urine different shades of red”
- 12. An adverse effect of administration of stimulant cathartic is:
- a. diarrhea
- 13. Long-term administration of mineral oil can decrease the absorption of:
- a. vitamin D and fat soluble vitamins
- 14. Administering castor oil the following way would make it more palatable:
- a. chill it
- 15. The safest and most effective way to treat constipation in children is with:
- a. glycerin suppositories
- 16. An alcoholic with chronic liver failure could use the following laxative to lower his serum ammonia levels:
- a. lactulose (Chronulac)
- 17. After surgery for a peptic ulcer, your client is receiving morphine sulfate 2 mg q4h, tetracycline 250 mg q6h, cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h, and acetaminophen (Tylenol) 600 mg q4h. Which of the medications above is most likely to cause constipatio
- a. morphine sulfate
- 18. Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) should be avoided if Mrs. V has:
- a. diabetes mellitus
- 19. An expected outcome of the administration of psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a regular bowel movement:
- a. within 1 to 3 days
- 20. Evidence of the following indicates that a client taking pancrelipase (Cotazym) needs to have his medication altered:
- a. steatorrhea
- 21. A client receiving diphenoxylate (Lomotil) should be altered to the following side effect related to this medication:
- a. drowsiness
- 22. The following medication is used to treat the diarrhead associated with bacillary dysentery caused by Shigella organisms:
- a. ampicillin (Omnipen)
- 23. An over the counter medication used to treat nausea is:
- a. Emetrol
- 24. The following symptom may be related to the use of dronabinol (Marinol):
- a. anxiety
- 25. Persons taking phenothiazines need to be assessed for extrapyramidal symptoms, which include:
- a. dyskinesia, dystonia, and akathisia
- 26. Your client is to receive Reglan for nausea. The following statement by your client lead you to believe that she has understood the teaching that you have done:
- a. “I may by drowsy as a result of taking this medication”
- 27. Before administering an antiemetic to a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse should assess:
- a. bowel sounds or blood pressure
- 28. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is contraindicated in:
- a. pregnant women
- 29. Which of the following anitememtics is the drug of choice for use with children?
- a. promethazine (Phenergan)
- 30. Mr. P is going on an ocean cruse and asks his physician for an antiemetic. Which of the following medications would be most effective for motion sickness?
- a. Anitvert
- 31. A scopolamine (Transderm Scop) patch is ordered for a terminal care patient experiencing nausea and vomiting. The following statement made by your patient leads you to believe that he or she understands how to use the patch:
- a. “I will place the patch behind my ear and replace it every 3 days”
- 32. When administering hydroxyzine (Vistaril), you need to assess the client for anticholinergic effects, which include:
- a. dry mouth and urinary retention
- 33. The ideal time to take antacid is:
- a. 1 hour before or after other drugs
- 34. Mrs. H a 79 year old woman with peptic ulcer disease, is taking cimetidine (Tagamet). When you enter her room, you find that she is confused. You should:
- a. hold the medication and contact her physician
- 35. Mr. J is to receive polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (GoLYTLEY) for bowel cleansing before an endoscopic procedure. Which instructions should you give M.J?
- a. “Take 8 ounces every 10 minutes until the 4 liters are gone”
- 36. An adverse effect of administration of bulk forming laxatives is:
- a. impaction
- 37. Administration of mineral oil can decrease the absorption of fat soluble vitamins if continued for longer than:
- a. 2 weeks
- 38. Before taking laxatives for constipation, Mrs. C should:
- a. drink 2000 to 3000 ml of fluid for several days
- 39. Your neighbor calls you because she has been having diarrhea for 2 days. What advice should you give her?
- a. “Drink plenty of fluids that contain calories and electrolytes”
- 40. Antiemetics are usually contraindicated in clients with:
- a. pregnancy
- 41. Which of the following statements by your client leads you to believe that she needs additional instruction regarding antiemetics?
- a. “If I become drowsy, I will stop taking the medication.”
- 42. Mrs. P becomes nauseated the night before her chemotherapy treatment. Her physician believes that she is experiencing anticipatory nausea. Which of the following medications would be most effective for Mrs. PÂ’s nausea?
- a. Ativan